CompTIA A+ Practice Test (220-1201)
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CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (V15) Information
CompTIA A+ Certification Overview
Exam Versions
The current versions of the CompTIA A+ certification exams are:
- 220-1201 (Core 1)
- 220-1202 (Core 2)
These versions were launched in April 2022 and are expected to retire approximately three years from their release date.
The A+ Certification Test
To earn the CompTIA A+ certification, candidates must pass two separate exams: 220-1201 and 220-1202. Each exam has a separate fee and can be taken in any order. Both exams must be completed before the retirement date and must be from the same set of objectives. The certification is valid for three years from the date of passing the exams.
Exam Details:
- Format: Computer-based tests
- Number of Questions: 90 questions per exam
- Time Limit: 90 minutes per exam
- Result Availability: Immediately after completion, following a short mandatory survey
CompTIA A+ 220-1201
The CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (Core 1) exam is a key component of the A+ certification, designed to validate essential IT skills and knowledge. This exam, launched in April 2022, covers a broad range of topics critical for IT professionals, including mobile devices, networking technology, hardware, virtualization and cloud computing, and network troubleshooting. Comprising 90 questions, the test includes multiple-choice and performance-based questions, simulating real-world scenarios to assess the candidate's practical abilities. The 220-1201 exam emphasizes the foundational skills necessary for IT support roles, ensuring that certified individuals are equipped to handle a variety of technical issues. With a 90-minute time limit, the exam challenges candidates to demonstrate their proficiency efficiently, providing immediate results upon completion. The certification remains valid for three years, making it a crucial step for those aiming to establish or advance their careers in IT.
Exam Policies and Procedures
Candidates must agree to CompTIA's exam policies before starting the test. These policies include:
- No Mobile Phones/Devices: Must be left outside the exam room
- Question Review: Candidates can revisit and change answers before submitting the exam
- Submission: Unanswered questions are marked, and a final review is available before submission
Testing Centers
Since July 9, 2012, CompTIA exams are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers. Candidates can book exams online, by phone, or at the testing center. Options include:
- In-Person Testing: At Pearson VUE testing centers
- Online Testing: Through Pearson VUE's online platform
Performance-Based Questions (PBQs)
The A+ exams include Performance-Based Questions (PBQs), which require candidates to perform specific tasks or solve problems in a simulated environment. These questions test real-world skills in areas like command prompts, Windows OS, and networking environments.
Continuing Education (CE) Program
Certifications with the +CE (Continuing Education) suffix, including A+, Network+, and Security+, must be renewed every three years. Renewal options include:
- Retaking the Exam: Passing the latest version of the exam
- Higher-Level Certification: Passing a higher-level CompTIA exam
- CE Program Requirements: Completing CE activities
Lifetime Certifications
Certifications earned on or before December 31, 2010, are valid for life. However, lifetime certifications are no longer available for new candidates.
More reading:

Free CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (V15) Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited
- Mobile DevicesNetworkingHardwareVirtualization and Cloud ComputingHardware and Network Troubleshooting
Your company must continue using a proprietary 32-bit program that only installs on Windows XP. All employee laptops run Windows 11 64-bit, and policy demands the legacy environment remain isolated from the production network except for manual file transfers. Which solution best allows each user to run the program while meeting these requirements?
Package the application inside a Docker container and run the container on Windows 11.
Subscribe to a cloud-hosted SaaS edition of the accounting program and access it through a web browser.
Enable Windows 11 compatibility mode for the installer and run the program directly on the host OS.
Install a type-2 hypervisor on each laptop and run a Windows XP virtual machine with host-only networking enabled.
Answer Description
Using a hosted (type-2) desktop hypervisor such as Oracle VirtualBox or VMware Workstation Player on each Windows 11 laptop lets users create a self-contained Windows XP virtual machine. The VM emulates the full PC hardware stack, so the legacy 32-bit application installs and runs unmodified. The VM's network adapter can be set to Host-Only (or NAT with no port-forwarding), keeping the guest isolated from the production LAN while still permitting controlled file copies through shared folders or drag-and-drop, which satisfies the security policy.
Containers share the host's Windows 11 kernel, so they cannot boot a Windows XP kernel. Windows compatibility mode merely shims APIs and cannot overcome missing 16-bit subsystems on 64-bit Windows. Subscribing to a SaaS edition would replace, not preserve, the existing application and assumes such a service exists, so it does not meet the stated requirement.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a type-2 hypervisor?
What does host-only networking mean?
Why can't Docker containers run Windows XP?
A file server uses a three-disk hardware RAID 5 array. Users report sluggish file access, and the RAID management utility flags Disk 2 with several reallocated sectors and an "S.M.A.R.T. imminent failure" warning, although the virtual drive is still healthy. The company cannot afford downtime during business hours. Which action should the technician take first to resolve the issue while maintaining availability?
Force the controller to mark Disk 2 healthy and clear all error counters.
Install a fourth drive and convert the array to RAID 10 during the next maintenance window.
Hot-swap Disk 2 with an identical replacement drive and allow the array to rebuild.
Replace every disk in the array and restore the data from last night's backup.
Answer Description
Because a RAID 5 volume can tolerate the loss of a single member, the safest first step is to hot-swap the drive that is reporting S.M.A.R.T. imminent failure with an identical replacement. The controller will rebuild parity on the new disk while the array stays online. Clearing the error counters leaves a failing disk in service and risks data loss; replacing all drives and restoring from backup causes unnecessary downtime; converting to RAID 10 does not remove the failing disk and also requires additional hardware.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does 'hot-swapping' mean in the context of RAID?
What is S.M.A.R.T. and why is it important in disk monitoring?
Why is RAID 5 able to tolerate the failure of one disk?
Which of the following statements about M.2 solid-state drives (SSDs) is TRUE?
An M.2 drive is an optical device used to read CD, DVD, and Blu-ray media.
An M.2 drive contains spinning platters that typically rotate at 10,000 RPM.
An M.2 drive requires both a SATA data cable and a SATA power cable.
An M.2 drive connects to the motherboard through a dedicated slot and receives both data and power through that connector.
Answer Description
M.2 SSDs plug into a dedicated M.2 slot on the motherboard. The edge connector carries both data and power, so no separate SATA data or power cables are required. Rotational speed (RPM) applies only to mechanical hard drives, and M.2 devices are not optical drives.
Ask Bash
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What is the difference between M.2 SSDs and SATA SSDs?
What is NVMe and how does it improve SSD performance?
Why do M.2 devices not require SATA cables?
During a wireless site survey for a small warehouse, you discover heavy shelving and several concrete support pillars that will obstruct radio signals. Management prefers reliable coverage over maximum throughput and wants to minimize the number of access points that must be installed. Which Wi-Fi frequency band should you recommend for the client devices to use?
2.4 GHz
6 GHz
60 GHz
5 GHz
Answer Description
Lower-frequency signals travel farther and penetrate solid obstacles more effectively than higher-frequency signals because they experience less free-space path loss and better diffraction. The 2.4 GHz band therefore offers the best range and wall penetration, making it the logical choice when coverage is the primary goal. The 5 GHz and 6 GHz bands provide higher data rates but their shorter wavelengths attenuate more quickly and are blocked more easily by shelves and concrete. A 60 GHz millimeter-wave band would have even poorer range indoors and is not part of standard Wi-Fi deployments for warehouse coverage.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why does the 2.4 GHz band penetrate obstacles better than higher-frequency bands?
What are the trade-offs of using 2.4 GHz over 5 GHz or 6 GHz?
Why wouldn’t the 60 GHz band be suitable for warehouse Wi-Fi coverage?
Which of the cloud characteristics is also one of the security concerns for organizations using a cloud service provider?
Shared resources
Rapid elasticity
Metered utilization
File synchronization
Answer Description
Shared resources (also known as resource pooling) is a characteristic of cloud services where the same pool of resources are shared among various clients of a cloud service provider based on client demand. This can be a security concern to the possibility of unauthorized data access.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does 'shared resources' mean in cloud computing?
Why is 'shared resources' a security concern in cloud environments?
What measures do cloud service providers take to secure shared resources?
A developer is configuring an internal application that needs to relay messages through the company's on-premises mail gateway. The gateway accepts unencrypted SMTP connections that will later be processed by a spam filter and then routed to Microsoft 365. The firewall currently blocks all outbound traffic from the application server. Which single TCP port must be allowed so the messages can leave the server?
TCP 110
TCP 143
TCP 25
TCP 443
Answer Description
Unencrypted Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) sessions use TCP port 25. Enabling that port allows the application to open an SMTP session with the mail gateway and submit messages for relay.
- TCP 110 and TCP 143 are used by POP3 and IMAP, protocols that clients use to retrieve mail, not to send it.
- TCP 443 is used for HTTPS, which secures web traffic and is unrelated to standard SMTP relay. Allowing any of those ports would not let the application transmit outgoing mail through the SMTP gateway.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is SMTP and why is TCP port 25 used for it?
How are SMTP, POP3, and IMAP different?
What role does a firewall play in blocking or allowing TCP ports?
You need to connect an older printer to your computer. The printer connects using a serial connection. Which of the following types of cables do you need?
USB 2.0
RJ11
DB9
USB 3.0
Answer Description
A DB9 (also called DE9) connector is a type of connection commonly used in serial ports. It is used in many applications including video output, network ports and communication ports such as for printer connections.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a DB9 connector used for?
How is a serial connection different from USB?
Why is DB9 sometimes called DE9?
Your employer requires all mobile devices have a VPN client installed. The VPN client should be enabled whenever public or otherwise untrusted wireless networks are used. What is the benefit of using a VPN?
VPNs are a client only application that scans network traffic for possible viruses and worms
VPNs upgrade any HTTP traffic to HTTPS automatically
VPNs provide an encrypted tunnel that protects data transmitted wireless from being read by malicious actors
VPNs provide a packet scanning service that ensures the untrusted wireless network is safe to use
Answer Description
A Virtual Private Network (VPN) provides an encrypted tunnel to connect to networks. It can be used to securely connect from a home office to a corporate network or as an additional layer of security when using public wireless networks (e.g. the free WiFi at a coffee shop).
Ask Bash
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What does encryption in a VPN do?
How does a VPN protect against public WiFi risks?
What is the difference between a VPN and HTTPS?
What is the impact of jitter on a network connection?
It causes variations in the time between arriving data packets, potentially disrupting streaming and VoIP services.
It increases the overall throughput of data across the network.
It increases the signal strength of wireless connections, improving network speed.
It reduces the security of the network by interrupting encryption protocols.
Answer Description
Jitter refers to the variability in time between data packets arriving, caused by network congestion, timing drift, or route changes. High levels of jitter can lead to packets being out of sequence, resulting in poor audio and video quality in streaming and VoIP applications. Understanding jitter is essential for network troubleshooting because it can severely affect the user experience and consistent data flow, which are critical in real-time communications.
Ask Bash
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What causes jitter in a network connection?
How can jitter affect real-time applications like VoIP and streaming?
How can jitter be mitigated in a network?
You have been tasked with implementing a new server in your company's network which will be responsible for assigning IP addresses to client machines dynamically. Which role should you configure the server for?
Fileshare server
Domain Name System
Syslog server
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
Answer Description
The correct answer is DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol), since it is the role a server takes to dynamically distribute network configuration parameters, such as IP addresses, for interfaces and services. With DHCP, client machines can “lease” an IP address for a certain period of time. DNS (Domain Name System) serves as the phonebook for the internet, translating domain names to IP addresses, not dynamically assigning them. Syslog is used for logging and monitoring network devices, not for assigning IP addresses. A fileshare server is used for storing and sharing files, not assigning IP addresses.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is DHCP and how does it work?
How does DHCP differ from static IP assignment?
What happens if there is no DHCP server on the network?
Which protocol listens on both TCP and UDP port 53 and provides recursive and iterative queries that resolve hostnames into IP addresses on IP networks?
DNS
SNMP
LDAP
DHCP
Answer Description
Domain Name System (DNS) servers answer recursive and iterative queries to translate fully qualified domain names (FQDNs) such as www.example.com into the numerical IP addresses computers use. DNS uses both UDP (most lookups) and TCP (zone transfers or responses that exceed UDP size) on port 53.
DHCP (ports 67/68) automatically leases IP addresses but does not perform hostname lookups. LDAP (port 389) is a directory access protocol. SNMP (ports 161/162) is used for network monitoring and management.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why does DNS use both TCP and UDP on port 53?
What is the difference between recursive and iterative queries in DNS?
What is a Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN), and how does DNS resolve it?
A traveling sales representative reports that their three-year-old laptop now runs for less than 45 minutes on battery power. The Windows battery-health report shows the battery is at 38 % of its original design capacity after 560 charge cycles. What is the MOST effective way to restore all-day portability for this user?
Calibrate the existing battery by performing two full discharge-recharge cycles
Carry an external USB-C power bank for additional runtime
Update the laptop's BIOS and chipset drivers to the latest versions
Install a new manufacturer-approved replacement battery
Answer Description
Lithium-ion batteries permanently lose capacity with each charge cycle because of chemical aging. Once capacity falls well below 80 % of design specifications, no amount of calibration, BIOS updates, or power-saving settings will restore the lost watt-hours. Replacing the depleted pack with a new manufacturer-approved battery is therefore the only effective fix. Other options (battery calibration, BIOS firmware updates, or relying on an external USB power bank) may offer minor improvements or convenience but do not restore the laptop's internal runtime.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why do lithium-ion batteries lose capacity over time?
What is a charge cycle in a lithium-ion battery?
Why is replacing the battery more effective than alternatives like calibration or power banks?
Older laptop panels relied on a cold cathode fluorescent lamp (CCFL) - a thin luminescent tube that needs an inverter - to provide the backlight behind the liquid-crystal layer. Which display technology uses this type of fluorescent tube as its light source?
LCD
Plasma
LED
OLED
Answer Description
LCD (Liquid Crystal Display) panels that employ CCFL backlighting contain a small fluorescent tube running along one edge or behind the panel. The lamp's ultraviolet discharge excites phosphors inside the tube, producing white light that passes through the liquid-crystal matrix to form an image. LED-backlit screens still use an LCD panel but replace the fluorescent tube with light-emitting diodes, improving efficiency and thickness. Plasma displays create light within each pixel via ionized gas cells and do not require a separate backlight, while OLED pixels are self-emissive and likewise need no external lamp.
Ask Bash
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What is the difference between CCFL and LED backlighting?
Why does CCFL backlighting require an inverter?
How does LCD technology differ from OLED and Plasma in terms of backlighting?
Which characteristic of cloud computing allows for the automatic scaling to match computing needs?
High availability
Metered utilization
Shared resources
Rapid elasticity
Answer Description
Rapid elasticity is the characteristic of cloud computing that enables services to automatically scale resources up or down, depending on current demand. It ensures that the computing environment can adapt quickly to workload changes. The other options are attributes of cloud computing, but they do not directly refer to the ability to scale resources automatically to meet demand. High availability refers to systems that are continuously operational for a long duration, while shared resources refer to the pooling of resources to serve multiple consumers. Metered utilization pertains to the measurement of resource usage for billing or monitoring purposes.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is rapid elasticity in cloud computing?
How does rapid elasticity differ from high availability?
What role does metered utilization play in cloud computing compared to rapid elasticity?
Which video interface standard supports the daisy chaining of multiple monitors using a single connection from a computer?
DisplayPort
VGA
DVI
HDMI
Answer Description
DisplayPort supports the ability to daisy chain multiple monitors through a feature known as Multi-Stream Transport (MST). This allows a series of displays to be connected in sequence with just one cable from the source. DVI and HDMI do not natively support daisy chaining. VGA does not support daisy chaining, as it is an older analog standard.
Ask Bash
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What is Multi-Stream Transport (MST)?
Why does HDMI not support daisy chaining?
What are the key differences between DisplayPort and DVI for video output?
Which of the following display technologies requires a separate backlight because its pixels do NOT emit light on their own?
Plasma
OLED
MicroLED
LCD (IPS/TN/VA panel)
Answer Description
LCD panels (including IPS, TN, and VA variants) are transmissive; their liquid crystals merely modulate light passing through them and do not generate light. A dedicated back-light unit (LED or CCFL) provides the illumination, so if the backlight fails, the screen appears dark.
OLED, plasma, and MicroLED displays are emissive technologies whose pixels produce their own light and therefore do not need an independent backlight.
References: Liquid-crystal displays require a backlight ; OLED panels are self-luminous and have "no backlight" .
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the difference between transmissive and emissive display technologies?
How does the backlight in an LCD work?
What are the advantages of emissive technologies like OLED over transmissive technologies like LCD?
A user has called in reporting that their documents are not printing despite numerous attempts. As a technician, you check and find there are multiple print jobs lined up in the print queue. What is the most likely resolution for this issue?
Resend all the print jobs to the printer without clearing the queue.
Restart the printer and computers involved without clearing the queue.
Remove and reinstall the printer drivers without clearing the print queue.
Clear the print queue and restart the Print Spooler service.
Answer Description
In the case of multiple prints pending in the queue, it is frequently effective to clear the print queue to remove any stuck or corrupt print jobs that could be causing subsequent jobs to fail. By stopping the Print Spooler service, deleting the temporary spool files, and then restarting the service, a technician can often resolve these kinds of issues. Simply restarting the device or resending the print jobs, without clearing the existing queue, often does not resolve the issue.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the Print Spooler service?
How do you clear the print queue?
What causes print jobs to get stuck in the print queue?
A security audit states that the attack surface of several developer laptops running Type 2 hypervisors must be reduced immediately. According to virtualization security best practices, which action should the technician perform FIRST to address this requirement?
Assign each virtual machine to a unique VLAN on the core switch.
Enable nested paging (SLAT) and IOMMU support in UEFI firmware.
Apply the latest security patches to the host operating system and hypervisor software.
Create a snapshot of every virtual machine before each update cycle.
Answer Description
Type 2 hypervisors rely on a fully featured host operating system. If that OS contains unpatched vulnerabilities, every virtual machine running on top of it can be compromised, regardless of the guest settings. Therefore, keeping the host OS and the hypervisor application fully patched is the most critical first step in hardening a desktop-class virtualization platform.
- Taking snapshots protects data but does not shrink the attack surface.
- Placing each VM on its own VLAN improves network segmentation but does not remove exploitable code from the host.
- Enabling nested paging (SLAT/IOMMU) can enhance performance or device pass-through, yet it does not mitigate software vulnerabilities.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a Type 2 hypervisor?
Why is patching the host OS and hypervisor critical?
How does VLAN configuration benefit virtual machines?
Which characteristic of Apple's Lightning connector differentiates it from older micro-USB connectors found on many other smartphones?
It is reversible and can be inserted into the port in either orientation.
It supports fiber-optic data transmission over copper cabling.
It contains 24 pins that enable native Thunderbolt video output.
It uses a keyed notch that must be aligned before insertion.
Answer Description
The Lightning plug is designed so that the eight pins are duplicated on both sides, allowing it to be inserted into the port with either side facing up. Older micro-USB plugs are keyed and work only in one orientation. Lightning does not use fiber-optic conductors, does not rely on a keyed notch for alignment, and it has 8 pins-not 24-for Thunderbolt video output.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does it mean that the Lightning connector is reversible?
How does the Lightning connector compare to micro-USB in terms of design and usability?
Why does the Lightning connector only have 8 pins while not supporting Thunderbolt video output?
Which of the following is a primary advantage of using Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) in the cloud compared to on-premises VDI?
Cost savings
Improved security
Reduced hardware maintenance
Scalability
Answer Description
A primary advantage of using VDI in the cloud is its scalability. Cloud environments offer rapid elasticity, allowing resources to be scaled up or down as needed, which is often more difficult and expensive to achieve with on-premises infrastructure. Reduced hardware maintenance is another benefit, but it is not as critical as the scalability aspect. While cost savings and security improvements are possible, they depend on the specific implementation and are not guaranteed.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI)?
What does scalability mean in the context of cloud-based VDI?
How does cloud-based VDI differ from on-premises VDI in terms of hardware maintenance?
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