CompTIA A+ Practice Test (220-1201)
Use the form below to configure your CompTIA A+ Practice Test (220-1201). The practice test can be configured to only include certain exam objectives and domains. You can choose between 5-100 questions and set a time limit.

CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (V15) Information
CompTIA A+ Certification Overview
Exam Versions
The current versions of the CompTIA A+ certification exams are:
- 220-1201 (Core 1)
- 220-1202 (Core 2)
These versions were launched in April 2022 and are expected to retire approximately three years from their release date.
The A+ Certification Test
To earn the CompTIA A+ certification, candidates must pass two separate exams: 220-1201 and 220-1202. Each exam has a separate fee and can be taken in any order. Both exams must be completed before the retirement date and must be from the same set of objectives. The certification is valid for three years from the date of passing the exams.
Exam Details:
- Format: Computer-based tests
- Number of Questions: 90 questions per exam
- Time Limit: 90 minutes per exam
- Result Availability: Immediately after completion, following a short mandatory survey
CompTIA A+ 220-1201
The CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (Core 1) exam is a key component of the A+ certification, designed to validate essential IT skills and knowledge. This exam, launched in April 2022, covers a broad range of topics critical for IT professionals, including mobile devices, networking technology, hardware, virtualization and cloud computing, and network troubleshooting. Comprising 90 questions, the test includes multiple-choice and performance-based questions, simulating real-world scenarios to assess the candidate's practical abilities. The 220-1201 exam emphasizes the foundational skills necessary for IT support roles, ensuring that certified individuals are equipped to handle a variety of technical issues. With a 90-minute time limit, the exam challenges candidates to demonstrate their proficiency efficiently, providing immediate results upon completion. The certification remains valid for three years, making it a crucial step for those aiming to establish or advance their careers in IT.
Exam Policies and Procedures
Candidates must agree to CompTIA's exam policies before starting the test. These policies include:
- No Mobile Phones/Devices: Must be left outside the exam room
- Question Review: Candidates can revisit and change answers before submitting the exam
- Submission: Unanswered questions are marked, and a final review is available before submission
Testing Centers
Since July 9, 2012, CompTIA exams are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers. Candidates can book exams online, by phone, or at the testing center. Options include:
- In-Person Testing: At Pearson VUE testing centers
- Online Testing: Through Pearson VUE's online platform
Performance-Based Questions (PBQs)
The A+ exams include Performance-Based Questions (PBQs), which require candidates to perform specific tasks or solve problems in a simulated environment. These questions test real-world skills in areas like command prompts, Windows OS, and networking environments.
Continuing Education (CE) Program
Certifications with the +CE (Continuing Education) suffix, including A+, Network+, and Security+, must be renewed every three years. Renewal options include:
- Retaking the Exam: Passing the latest version of the exam
- Higher-Level Certification: Passing a higher-level CompTIA exam
- CE Program Requirements: Completing CE activities
Lifetime Certifications
Certifications earned on or before December 31, 2010, are valid for life. However, lifetime certifications are no longer available for new candidates.
More reading:
Free CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (V15) Practice Test
Press start when you are ready, or press Change to modify any settings for the practice test.
- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:Mobile DevicesNetworkingHardwareVirtualization and Cloud ComputingHardware and Network Troubleshooting
An IT technician suspects there is an issue with the physical Ethernet cabling within the network. Which networking tool is BEST suited to test the integrity of the cable pairs and confirm the correct pinout configuration?
Punchdown tool
Loopback plug
WiFi analyzer
Cable tester
Answer Description
A cable tester is specifically designed to test the integrity of cable pairs and ensure the correct pinout configuration. This tool will check for problems such as open wires, shorts, crossed pairs, and other issues that might affect data transmission. While the other tools listed are useful in different contexts, the cable tester is the best choice for directly testing the physical cables themselves. A WiFi analyzer is used for wireless networks, a punchdown tool is for terminating wires, and a loopback plug tests a network port rather than the entire cable.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are common issues a cable tester can detect in Ethernet cables?
How does a cable tester confirm the correct pinout configuration?
What is the difference between a cable tester and a WiFi analyzer?
A technician is tasked with upgrading the storage device in a laptop to shorten the operating system's load time and improve overall application responsiveness. The current drive is a traditional spinning hard disk with moderate data-access speeds. Which of the following replacement options would BEST meet the user's requirements?
Install an internal solid-state drive (SSD).
Use a hybrid drive that includes embedded flash memory (SSHD).
Replace the current drive with a faster 7200 RPM hard disk.
Purchase a subscription for additional cloud-based storage capacity.
Answer Description
Installing a solid-state drive (SSD) is the best way to improve boot and application performance. Because SSDs have no moving parts, they deliver dramatically lower latency and much higher sustained read/write speeds than any mechanical drive, including 7200 RPM models or hybrid drives that cache only a small amount of data. Faster-spinning or hybrid disks offer incremental gains, and additional cloud storage has no effect on local system startup or software launch times.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are solid state drives (SSDs) and how do they work?
Why are solid state drives recommended for improving performance over traditional hard drives?
What are the differences between SSDs and traditional hard drives (HDDs)?
Which of the following internet connection types uses cell towers to provide internet access and typically allows mobility for the user?
Fiber
Satellite
Cellular
DSL
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Cellular' as it uses cell towers to provide wide coverage for internet access and allows users to maintain connectivity while on the move. DSL and Fiber are wired connections that are not mobile. Satellite internet requires a stationary dish and is not designed for use while in motion.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the advantages of using a cellular connection for internet access?
How does a cellular network differ from DSL and fiber connections?
What are the different generations of cellular technology and their speeds?
A user is equipping a home office and needs the fastest possible data-transfer connection for an external solid-state drive (SSD). The computer already has the required ports. Which type of cable should the user select to achieve the best performance?
Thunderbolt 3
Serial (RS-232)
USB 3.2 Gen 2 (10 Gbps) over USB-C
USB 2.0
Answer Description
Thunderbolt 3 is the fastest interface among the options, supporting data transfer speeds up to 40 Gbps. This is significantly faster than the other choices. USB 3.2 Gen 2 offers speeds up to 10 Gbps, while USB 2.0 is limited to 480 Mbps. A serial (RS-232) connection is a legacy interface with much slower speeds, measured in kilobits per second, and is unsuitable for high-speed data transfer.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is Thunderbolt 3 and how does it work?
What are the advantages of using Thunderbolt 3 over USB 3.0?
How do USB-C and Thunderbolt 3 differ?
A technician has been called to investigate a server that is displaying the wrong date and time after a planned maintenance window. The server is a virtual machine hosted on a hypervisor. The server time resets to the hypervisor's time after every reboot, even though the timezone is correctly set on the server. What should the technician check FIRST to correct this issue?
Verify the date and time on the hypervisor and correct if necessary.
Replace the CMOS battery on the physical host machine.
Check for malware that might be interfering with the time service.
Update the virtual machine's integration tools to the latest version.
Answer Description
In virtualized environments, the virtual machine typically synchronizes its clock with the host machine, known as the hypervisor. If the hypervisor's time is not set correctly, it can override the individual virtual machine's settings after every reboot or time synchronization event. Therefore, checking and correcting the hypervisor's date and time settings is crucial. The other options might also affect time settings, but they are less likely causes compared to the direct synchronization with the hypervisor's clock and would not persist after correcting them directly on the server.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a hypervisor?
What is the impact of incorrect date and time on a server?
What are virtual machine integration tools?
You are a desktop technician for a small office. You suspect that a user has opened their desktop PC case and made unauthorized changes to the device's hardware. Which of the following can be configured to identify this in the future?
Chassis Intrusion Detection
Host Intrusion Prevention
None of the above
Host Intrusion Detection
Answer Description
Chassis Intrusion Detection is a BIOS/UEFI setting available on some motherboards that can detect when a computer's case has been opened. This feature alerts an administrator or logs the event the next time the system boots.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is Chassis Intrusion Detection?
How does BIOS relate to Chassis Intrusion Detection?
What are some other security features involving hardware monitoring?
What type of battery is most common for use in mobile devices like laptops and smart devices?
Silver-oxide
Lithium-ion
Lead-acid
Alkaline
Answer Description
Lithium-ion batteries are the most common type for small mobile devices like laptops and smart devices. They offer high-energy density in a small form factor, charge quickly, and discharge at a steady rate, making them ideal for portable electronics. Other battery types are not suitable for this purpose; for example, lead-acid batteries are too heavy and are used in vehicles, while alkaline batteries are typically single-use and found in lower-power household devices.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the advantages of Lithium-ion batteries over other types?
What is the lifespan of a Lithium-ion battery?
How do Lithium-ion batteries compare in safety to other battery types?
Which cloud model provides a combination of on-premises infrastructure and public cloud services, allowing for data and applications to be shared between them?
Public cloud
Private cloud
Hybrid cloud
Community cloud
Answer Description
A hybrid cloud combines both on-premises (private) infrastructure and public cloud services. This model offers the flexibility of keeping sensitive data on-premises while utilizing public cloud resources for less critical operations, optimizing both security and scalability. Private clouds are limited to on-premises or dedicated data centers, while public clouds are completely off-site services available to multiple users. Community clouds are shared among several organizations with common concerns.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the benefits of using a hybrid cloud model?
How do security measures differ between hybrid and public cloud models?
Can you explain the differences between private and public clouds?
A technician is preparing to replace the battery in a customer's smartphone. Which battery chemistry is used in nearly all modern smartphones and tablets because it provides a high energy density while remaining relatively lightweight?
Lithium-ion
Lead-acid
Nickel-metal hydride
Nickel-cadmium
Answer Description
Lithium-ion batteries deliver a high energy-to-weight ratio, making them ideal for portable devices such as smartphones and tablets that require long runtimes without adding excessive mass. Other chemistries-such as nickel-cadmium, nickel-metal hydride, or lead-acid-either suffer from lower energy density, higher weight, or form factors unsuitable for modern mobile devices, which is why they are rarely used in today's handheld electronics.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does ARM stand for and what is its significance in mobile devices?
How does ARM architecture compare to x86 architecture in terms of performance?
What are some other applications of ARM architecture apart from smartphones and tablets?
In North America, which statement correctly compares the number of non-overlapping 20 MHz Wi-Fi channels available in the 2.4 GHz band with those available in the 5 GHz band?
All 11 channels in 2.4 GHz are non-overlapping, but only about 8 channels in 5 GHz are non-overlapping.
Approximately 14 non-overlapping channels are in 2.4 GHz, whereas 40 or more are in 5 GHz.
About 3 non-overlapping channels exist in 2.4 GHz, while roughly 24-25 exist in 5 GHz.
Around 24 non-overlapping channels are in 2.4 GHz, but only 3 exist in 5 GHz.
Answer Description
Because the 2.4 GHz band is only 83.5 MHz wide, channels overlap heavily; channels 1, 6, and 11 are the only three that do not overlap. The 5 GHz band spans several UNII sub-bands, giving roughly two dozen discrete 20 MHz channels (24-25 depending on regulatory domain). Therefore, the 5 GHz band offers far more non-overlapping channels, reducing co-channel interference when multiple WLANs operate in the same area.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
How do non-overlapping channels improve network performance?
Why is the 2.4GHz band more commonly used despite having fewer channels?
What are the specific channels available in the 5GHz band?
What is the primary function of a punchdown tool in networking?
The primary function of a punchdown tool is to create a secure crimp for RJ45 connectors at the end of an ethernet cable.
The primary function of a punchdown tool is to strip away the insulation from networking cables without damaging the wire.
The primary function of a punchdown tool is to test the connectivity and signal strength for ethernet cabling.
The primary function of a punchdown tool is to insert and cut cable wire terminations within patch panels or keystone jacks.
Answer Description
The punchdown tool is designed to insert and secure wire terminations firmly within a patch panel or keystone jack while trimming off any excess wire. It is commonly used during the installation of cable (e.g. Cat5e, Cat6) in network components that require fixed placement of wires. Tools such as wire cutters or crimpers do not perform the same function, as they are used for cutting wire or affixing connectors respectively, not seating wire within a terminal block.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a patch panel and why is it used?
What types of cables are typically terminated using a punchdown tool?
What are the advantages of using a punchdown tool over other tools?
A desktop workstation's onboard Ethernet controller has failed. The motherboard has one open PCIe x1 slot and one open legacy 32-bit PCI slot. To obtain the fastest wired network throughput possible with the existing motherboard, which expansion card should the technician install?
A USB 2.0 10/100 Ethernet dongle
A USB 3.0 802.11ac wireless network adapter
A legacy 32-bit PCI 10/100 Ethernet network interface card
A PCIe 2.5-Gigabit Ethernet network interface card
Answer Description
A PCIe NIC is the best choice because the PCI Express bus delivers hundreds of megabytes per second per lane (250 MB/s in PCIe 1.0; higher in later versions), easily supporting Gigabit and multi-Gigabit Ethernet. The older 32-bit, 33 MHz PCI bus peaks at about 133 MB/s, creating a bottleneck for high-speed NICs. USB-based or wireless adapters can work but introduce additional overhead or variable performance that is generally slower and less consistent than a wired PCIe solution.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a Peripheral Component Interconnect Express (PCIe) slot?
What are some advantages of upgrading to a PCIe network interface card?
What might be the limitations of using a legacy expansion slot for a network card?
During a high-volume printing job, the office multifunction printer experiences multiple incidents of several pages feeding through the paper path at once, causing paper jams. After clearing the jams, the issue persists. What should you investigate FIRST to resolve this continuous multipage misfeed problem?
Replace the current paper stock with a different brand to ensure it meets paper quality specifications.
Check for and install any firmware updates for the printer.
Verify and adjust the paper type and print queue settings accordingly.
Examine the condition of the misfeed sensitivity or separation pad and replace if worn.
Answer Description
Worn or dirty separation pads (and the related pickup-roller/separator mechanism) cannot provide enough friction differential to separate one sheet from the next, so the printer pulls multiple pages at once. Inspecting, cleaning, or replacing the separation pad is therefore the logical first step. Paper quality, humidity, and static can also contribute to multi-feeds, but those factors should be checked only after ruling out mechanical wear. Firmware updates and print-queue settings do not affect the physical separation of sheets.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a misfeed sensitivity or separation pad?
How can I tell if the separation pads need to be replaced?
What types of paper quality issues can lead to printing problems?
In a server that requires high availability, multiple power supplies might be used. What is the primary reason for employing this configuration?
Multiple power supplies allow for failover if a power supply unit fails, mitigating the risk of system downtime
Having more than one power supply enables the server to draw power from two separate phases of AC power for load balancing
The additional power supplies deploy more fans, enhancing thermal management through superior airflow
The additional power supplies are intended to supply power to more peripherals and expansion cards added to the server
Answer Description
A redundant power supply system in a high-availability server environment is primarily designed to provide a failover option in the event of a power supply unit (PSU) failure. This ensures that the server continues to operate, significantly reducing downtime. Other advantages like improved efficiency or increased power output can be misinterpreted as primary benefits but they are secondary to the need for redundancy, which focuses mainly on maintaining uptime in response to PSU failures.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a power supply unit (PSU) and what does it do?
What does 'high availability' mean in a server context?
How does failover work in a server with redundant power supplies?
An end-user needs to configure their email client to retrieve emails securely. Which port should the client be configured to use to securely connect to a server using POP3?
110
587
995
993
Answer Description
Port 995 is the designated port for secure POP3 communications, also known as POP3S or POP3 over SSL/TLS. When configuring an email client to retrieve emails securely via POP3, it should be set to use this port, which facilitates encrypted communication to prevent eavesdropping. Port 110 is used for non-secure POP3 connections. Port 587 is for submitting emails via SMTP securely using STARTTLS. Port 993 is typically used for the secure version of the IMAP protocol (IMAPS).
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is POP3 and how does it work?
What is SSL/TLS and why is it important for email security?
What are the differences between POP3 and IMAP?
Neat!
Looks like that's it! You can go back and review your answers or click the button below to grade your test.