CompTIA A+ Practice Test (220-1201)
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CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (V15) Information
CompTIA A+ Certification Overview
Exam Versions
The current versions of the CompTIA A+ certification exams are:
- 220-1201 (Core 1)
- 220-1202 (Core 2)
These versions were launched in April 2022 and are expected to retire approximately three years from their release date.
The A+ Certification Test
To earn the CompTIA A+ certification, candidates must pass two separate exams: 220-1201 and 220-1202. Each exam has a separate fee and can be taken in any order. Both exams must be completed before the retirement date and must be from the same set of objectives. The certification is valid for three years from the date of passing the exams.
Exam Details:
- Format: Computer-based tests
- Number of Questions: 90 questions per exam
- Time Limit: 90 minutes per exam
- Result Availability: Immediately after completion, following a short mandatory survey
CompTIA A+ 220-1201
The CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (Core 1) exam is a key component of the A+ certification, designed to validate essential IT skills and knowledge. This exam, launched in April 2022, covers a broad range of topics critical for IT professionals, including mobile devices, networking technology, hardware, virtualization and cloud computing, and network troubleshooting. Comprising 90 questions, the test includes multiple-choice and performance-based questions, simulating real-world scenarios to assess the candidate's practical abilities. The 220-1201 exam emphasizes the foundational skills necessary for IT support roles, ensuring that certified individuals are equipped to handle a variety of technical issues. With a 90-minute time limit, the exam challenges candidates to demonstrate their proficiency efficiently, providing immediate results upon completion. The certification remains valid for three years, making it a crucial step for those aiming to establish or advance their careers in IT.
Exam Policies and Procedures
Candidates must agree to CompTIA's exam policies before starting the test. These policies include:
- No Mobile Phones/Devices: Must be left outside the exam room
- Question Review: Candidates can revisit and change answers before submitting the exam
- Submission: Unanswered questions are marked, and a final review is available before submission
Testing Centers
Since July 9, 2012, CompTIA exams are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers. Candidates can book exams online, by phone, or at the testing center. Options include:
- In-Person Testing: At Pearson VUE testing centers
- Online Testing: Through Pearson VUE's online platform
Performance-Based Questions (PBQs)
The A+ exams include Performance-Based Questions (PBQs), which require candidates to perform specific tasks or solve problems in a simulated environment. These questions test real-world skills in areas like command prompts, Windows OS, and networking environments.
Continuing Education (CE) Program
Certifications with the +CE (Continuing Education) suffix, including A+, Network+, and Security+, must be renewed every three years. Renewal options include:
- Retaking the Exam: Passing the latest version of the exam
- Higher-Level Certification: Passing a higher-level CompTIA exam
- CE Program Requirements: Completing CE activities
Lifetime Certifications
Certifications earned on or before December 31, 2010, are valid for life. However, lifetime certifications are no longer available for new candidates.
More reading:

Free CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (V15) Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited
- Mobile DevicesNetworkingHardwareVirtualization and Cloud ComputingHardware and Network Troubleshooting
Which of the following statements about M.2 solid-state drives (SSDs) is TRUE?
An M.2 drive requires both a SATA data cable and a SATA power cable.
An M.2 drive connects to the motherboard through a dedicated slot and receives both data and power through that connector.
An M.2 drive is an optical device used to read CD, DVD, and Blu-ray media.
An M.2 drive contains spinning platters that typically rotate at 10,000 RPM.
Answer Description
M.2 SSDs plug into a dedicated M.2 slot on the motherboard. The edge connector carries both data and power, so no separate SATA data or power cables are required. Rotational speed (RPM) applies only to mechanical hard drives, and M.2 devices are not optical drives.
Ask Bash
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What is the difference between M.2 SSDs and SATA SSDs?
What is NVMe and how does it improve SSD performance?
Why do M.2 devices not require SATA cables?
A technician needs to install a new high-end graphics card. Which type of motherboard expansion slot, designated by its number of data transmission lanes (e.g., x16), will the technician most likely use?
PCIe
AGP
CNR
PCI
Answer Description
PCIe (PCI Express) is the modern standard for expansion slots and is designated by its number of lanes, such as x1, x4, x8, and x16. A higher number of lanes provides greater bandwidth, which is critical for components like high-end graphics cards that typically use x16 slots. While the PCIe standard technically includes a x32 configuration, it is not found on common hardware. The other options are incorrect: PCI and AGP are legacy slot types that do not use this lane-based naming convention, and CNR was a specialized, obsolete riser slot.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does the 'x16' mean in a PCIe slot?
What is the difference between PCI and PCIe?
Can you use a smaller PCIe card, like x4, in an x16 slot?
What component in a laser printer applies heat to fuse the toner onto the paper?
Fuser assembly
Pickup rollers
Transfer roller
Imaging drum
Transfer belt
Duplexing assembly
Answer Description
The fuser assembly is the correct answer because it's responsible for heating the toner powder, allowing it to melt and bind to the paper to create a permanent image. The imaging drum is what receives the image from the laser in preparation for applying toner, but it does not fuse the toner to the paper. The transfer belt also is involved in the imaging process as it transfers the toner from the drum onto the paper, but again, it doesn’t provide the heat to fuse it. The transfer roller helps to apply an electrical charge to the paper, enabling the toner to be pulled onto the paper from the drum. Pickup rollers are responsible for feeding paper into the printer, and separation pads help separate individual sheets of paper. A duplexing assembly allows for printing on both sides of the paper but has no role in fusing toner.
Ask Bash
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What is the purpose of the fuser assembly in a laser printer?
How does the imaging drum differ from the fuser assembly in a laser printer?
Why can't other components like the transfer belt or rollers fuse toner onto the paper?
Which component of an impact printer is responsible for transferring characters onto the paper by striking an inked ribbon?
Imaging drum
Feed assembly
Heating element
Print head
Answer Description
In impact printers such as dot-matrix and daisy-wheel models, a moving print head contains pins or type elements that physically strike an inked ribbon. The force of this impact presses the ribbon against the paper, depositing ink to form characters or images. Other assemblies-such as feeding mechanisms, duplexing hardware, or laser imaging drums-perform different tasks and do not create the printed image.
Ask Bash
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How does the print head work in an impact printer?
What is the role of the inked ribbon in an impact printer?
How do impact printers differ from non-impact printers?
A technician is tightening outbound rules on a new SOHO firewall. So far, only TCP ports 53, 443, and 110 are allowed. Users can resolve hostnames, retrieve email from the POP3 server, and reach secure websites, but any attempt to open plain-text web pages results in a timeout. Which TCP port should be added to permit standard HTTP browsing?
143
23
21
80
Answer Description
Standard Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) sessions use TCP port 80. Without this port allowed, browsers cannot establish the initial connection for unencrypted web pages.
- Port 21 is the FTP control channel and is unrelated to web browsing.
- Port 23 is used by Telnet, a terminal emulation protocol, not by web browsers.
- Port 143 is the default port for IMAP email retrieval. Allowing these ports would not restore access to ordinary HTTP sites.
Ask Bash
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What is the purpose of TCP port 80?
Why is HTTPS traffic not affected even if TCP port 80 is blocked?
What is the difference between POP3 on port 110 and IMAP on port 143?
Which memory type is designed to operate at higher speeds with increased transfer rates compared to its predecessors, featuring lower voltage requirements and higher module density?
DDR3
DDR4
SODIMM
DDR2
Answer Description
DDR4 is the correct choice because it is known for higher speed and efficiency advancements over earlier RAM types like DDR2 and DDR3. DDR4 operates at a lower voltage of 1.2V against DDR3's 1.5V and DDR2's 1.8V, resulting in less power consumption. It also supports larger module capacities which allow for greater RAM density in computer systems.
Ask Bash
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Why does DDR4 consume less power compared to DDR3 and DDR2?
What does higher module density in DDR4 mean?
How do higher transfer rates in DDR4 improve system performance?
Which of the following actions is considered a best practice when connecting a new multifunction printer (MFP) in an office environment?
Assign a public Internet-routable IP address to the device for remote access
Disable user authentication to simplify the workflow
Require each user to authenticate before they can use print, scan, or fax functions
Leave the default administrator password unchanged after installation
Answer Description
Requiring each user to authenticate before accessing any print, scan, or fax capability prevents unauthorized use and enables auditing of every job. Disabling authentication, exposing the device directly to the Internet, or keeping default credentials all weaken security. Industry security guides for MFPs recommend enabling user authentication and other controls such as encryption and audit logging.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is user authentication important for multifunction printers?
What are the risks of using the default administrator password on an MFP?
Why is assigning a public Internet-routable IP address to an MFP a security risk?
While configuring a lightweight status probe that will periodically send a single 32 byte packet to hundreds of network hosts, the technician decides reliability is not critical and wants to minimize bandwidth and CPU overhead. Which transport-layer protocol best meets these requirements, and why?
UDP; it provides built-in flow control to prevent congestion.
TCP; its three-way handshake confirms the connection before data is sent.
TCP; it can broadcast packets without establishing sessions.
UDP; it is connectionless and has minimal header overhead.
Answer Description
The probe needs to push a small, one-way message without establishing or maintaining a session. UDP is a connectionless protocol, so it does not perform the three-way handshake, sequencing, acknowledgments, or flow-control operations that TCP uses. This absence of session management keeps the header small (8 bytes vs. TCP's 20+ bytes) and processing overhead low, making UDP ideal when speed and reduced bandwidth matter more than guaranteed delivery. TCP, on the other hand, is connection-oriented; its handshake, acknowledgments, and retransmission features add latency and additional bytes-unnecessary for a simple, best-effort status message. The option claiming UDP provides built-in flow control is incorrect, as this is a feature of TCP. The option claiming TCP can broadcast packets is also incorrect; TCP is a unicast protocol and does not support broadcasting.
Ask Bash
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Why is UDP preferred over TCP for lightweight probes?
What is the purpose of the three-way handshake in TCP?
How does UDP differ from TCP in terms of reliability?
What is the main purpose of a Peripheral Component Interconnect slot on a motherboard?
It assists in cooling the system by integrating fans or liquid cooling solutions.
It is used exclusively for installing additional RAM modules to boost system memory.
It allows for the installation of expansion cards that offer new capabilities or connectivity to a computer system.
It serves as an interface for programming the system's BIOS/UEFI settings.
Answer Description
The correct answer explains that the PCI slot is designed to accommodate expansion cards that provide additional functionality to a computer system. Incorrect answers like 'RAM installation' or 'Cooling the system' are not related to PCI slot use, although they might seem plausible because they involve motherboard components. Similarly, programming the BIOS/UEFI is not done via PCI slots but through the firmware interface itself.
Ask Bash
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What are expansion cards used for?
What’s the difference between PCI and PCIe?
How do you install an expansion card into a PCI slot?
A software development team is working on a new application that needs to operate on multiple operating systems for compatibility testing. The team wants to avoid the overhead of maintaining multiple physical machines. Which of the following is the MOST efficient solution to satisfy the team's requirements?
Use remote desktops to access hosted operating systems on different servers managed by the IT department.
Install a dual-boot configuration on all developers' local machines to switch between operating systems for testing.
Purchase physical machines for each operating system that needs testing, to ensure full compatibility.
Deploy virtual machines for each required operating system to simulate different environments on a single physical host.
Answer Description
Using virtual machines to provide an environment for cross-platform virtualization is the most efficient solution for the development team. Virtual machines enable the team to run multiple operating systems on a single physical machine, which facilitates easy compatibility testing without the need for multiple physical systems. Virtual machines act as a sandbox where developers can create and test in isolated environments that simulate different operating systems.
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What is a virtual machine (VM)?
How does virtualization make resource management efficient?
What are hypervisors and how do they work?
An employee with a Windows 10 laptop and a docking station has opened a ticket with the IT Help Desk where you work. The ticket asks if the two monitors at their desk can be swapped because they are not in the correct order when the user docks their laptop. How should you proceed?
Right-click on the desktop, select Personalize and find the swap display order button
Unplug the two monitors from the docking station, then plug them back into the docking station in the opposite order
Right-click on the desktop, select Display Settings and find the Re-arrange your displays section
Re-arrange the displays on the desk so they are in the correct order
Answer Description
The Windows 10 operating system allows users to Re-arrange their displays to match their physical layout. You can find this by right-clicking on the desktop, selecting Display Settings and finding the re-arrange your displays section. Here each display can be moved to match the physical layout.
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What does the 'Re-arrange your displays' section in Windows 10 do?
How does a docking station work with multiple monitors?
What are some common issues with multiple monitor setups?
A group of educational institutions is collaborating on a joint research project that requires sharing substantial computational resources and datasets. The project has strict data governance policies due to the sensitive nature of the research. Which type of cloud model would best serve their needs?
Private cloud
Public cloud
Community cloud
Hybrid cloud
Answer Description
A Community cloud serves multiple organizations with a common interest, providing a shared infrastructure for their specific community. This model helps comply with shared policies and considerations, such as data governance in the case of sensitive research data.
Ask Bash
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What is a community cloud and how does it differ from other cloud models?
What are some examples of industries or projects that would benefit from using community clouds?
How does data governance work in a community cloud?
A video editor is looking to upgrade their workstation to handle complex video rendering tasks involving 4K content. They have narrowed their choices down to several video cards with similar GPU architectures. Which feature should be prioritized to ensure that the workstation can efficiently process and render high-resolution video files?
The latest version of DirectX support
Lower thermal design power (TDP) for cooler operation
Greater memory bandwidth
A wider bus interface
Answer Description
To handle complex video rendering tasks, especially with 4K content, the most important aspect of the video card to prioritize is memory bandwidth. A higher memory bandwidth allows the video card to process the large amounts of data required for high-resolution video more effectively. Although the amount of VRAM is also essential, the card can become a bottleneck regardless of VRAM capacity if the memory bandwidth is too low. The memory bus interface width is a component of memory bandwidth, but bandwidth is the overall performance metric. Thermal design power (TDP) and DirectX support are important considerations for a system build but are secondary to the immediate need for high data throughput for this specific rendering task.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is memory bandwidth in a GPU and why is it important for video rendering?
How does the memory bus interface width affect memory bandwidth?
Why are TDP and DirectX support less critical for 4K video rendering?
Which of the following allows network prioritization based on packet contents?
Firewall
QoS
VLAN
SSID
Answer Description
Quality of Service (QoS) is a feature used in networking to manage traffic and ensure the performance of critical applications by prioritizing their data packets over less important traffic. For example, QoS can be configured on a router to give video conferencing traffic higher priority than file downloads to prevent stuttering and lag. A Virtual LAN (VLAN) is used to segment a network, a Service Set Identifier (SSID) is the name of a wireless network, and a firewall's primary purpose is to filter traffic for security.
Ask Bash
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What are some examples of how QoS is used in real-world networks?
How does QoS identify which packets to prioritize?
How do VLANs and QoS differ in function?
You have been assigned to configure a new enterprise wireless router for your employer's network. Which of the following settings should be changed first?
Configure encryption
Manufacturer password
Default SSID
MAC address filters
Answer Description
Networking equipment typically ships with a default password or no password at all. Changing the password should be step one, before any other configurations.
Ask Bash
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Why is it important to change the manufacturer's default password on a wireless router?
What is an SSID, and why is it not the first setting to change?
What role do MAC address filters play in securing a network?
An employee is attempting to access company resources kept on a centralized server. The user has the right permissions but cannot seem to access the share via the network. As the IT technician, you confirm that the workstation is on the same network as the server and that both devices are operational. Which of the following protocols is MOST likely used for sharing files over a network between Windows-based systems, and its corresponding port should be checked for proper configuration on both the client's firewall and the server's firewall?
FTP - 20/21
SMB/CIFS - 445
RDP - 3389
HTTPS - 443
Answer Description
Server Message Block (SMB), also known by its older dialect name Common Internet File System (CIFS), is the standard protocol for native file sharing on Windows networks. SMB uses TCP port 445. For the network share to be accessible, this port must be open on firewalls between the client and server. FTP (ports 20 and 21) is a protocol for transferring files but is not the default for integrated Windows sharing. HTTPS (port 443) is used for secure web traffic, which might be used for web-based file access but not for a traditional network share. RDP (port 3389) is used for remote desktop connections, not direct file share access as described.
Ask Bash
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Why is SMB/CIFS the default protocol for file sharing on Windows networks?
What happens if TCP port 445 is blocked on a firewall?
How does SMB/CIFS compare to FTP for file sharing?
A customer reports that their desktop PC restarts on its own about 30 minutes after every cold boot. The pattern is consistent whether the system is idle or running light applications. What is the BEST first course of action to troubleshoot the problem?
Purchase and install a higher-wattage power supply
Replace the CPU with a model that has a lower Thermal Design Power (TDP)
Check that the CMOS battery is properly seated
Verify that all cooling fans are operating and unobstructed
Answer Description
Consistent, timed shutdowns or restarts strongly suggest an overheating condition rather than a sporadic power or battery problem. Overheating most often results from inadequate airflow caused by failed or obstructed fans, clogged heat sinks, or dried thermal compound. The appropriate first step is to inspect and confirm that all cooling fans (CPU, chassis, and power-supply fans) are spinning freely and that vents are clear. If fans are stalled or obstructed, correct the cooling issue before considering replacement parts.
A power-supply replacement could solve random restarts caused by voltage drops, but it should not be attempted until overheating has been ruled out. A CMOS battery error generally manifests as lost BIOS settings or wrong system time, not timed restarts. Upgrading to a lower-TDP CPU might reduce heat, but replacing a major component before basic diagnostics is neither cost-effective nor aligned with best practices.
Ask Bash
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What are the most common signs of an overheating PC?
How do you inspect if a cooling fan is functioning properly?
What is Thermal Design Power (TDP) and why does it matter for CPUs?
A technician is tasked with upgrading a client's laptop with a new M.2 NVMe solid-state drive. To ensure the new drive will work, which of the following must the technician confirm first?
The laptop's UEFI/BIOS firmware is the latest version.
The operating system has the necessary drivers for the NVMe drive.
The laptop has enough physical space for the M.2 drive's length.
The motherboard has an M.2 slot that supports the NVMe protocol.
Answer Description
The essential first step is to confirm the laptop's motherboard has an M.2 slot that specifically supports the NVMe protocol. Not all M.2 slots support NVMe; some are designed only for SATA-based M.2 drives. Without the correct physical and electrical interface, the drive cannot be installed or recognized, making all other checks irrelevant. While physical space (form factor length), firmware updates, and OS drivers are valid considerations in a storage upgrade, they are all secondary to the primary check of interface compatibility.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the difference between NVMe and SATA in terms of M.2 drives?
How can you check if a motherboard's M.2 slot supports NVMe?
Why is NVMe compatibility more important than physical form factor or firmware updates?
Your company needs a solution that allows employees to access the latest version of an office suite, collaborate on documents in real-time, and reduce IT overhead. Which cloud computing model would be the most suitable to achieve this goal?
Infrastructure as a service
Software as a service
On-premises solution
Platform as a service
Answer Description
Software as a service (SaaS) provides applications over the internet, making it accessible from any device with an internet connection. This solution often includes regular updates and features for real-time collaboration while reducing the need for maintaining IT infrastructure. In contrast, IaaS and PaaS are service models that focus more on providing computing resources and platforms for development rather than complete software applications. An on-premises solution would require significant IT management and resources.
Ask Bash
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What are some examples of SaaS applications?
How does SaaS reduce IT overhead compared to on-premises solutions?
How is real-time collaboration implemented in SaaS applications?
A field technician is setting up a mobile tablet for a delivery driver. The tablet will be used for turn-by-turn navigation and real-time package tracking. The driver often travels through rural areas with little or no cellular coverage. Which of the following features should the technician verify is enabled on the tablet to obtain accurate location data under those conditions?
Only enable Wi-Fi
Enable GPS services
Switch on airplane mode
Disable all location services
Answer Description
The mobile device's GPS receiver determines its position by reading signals from multiple satellites, so it can still calculate latitude and longitude when cellular and Wi-Fi networks are unavailable. Disabling location services would block GPS entirely. Enabling Wi-Fi alone relies on nearby access-point databases, which may not exist in sparsely populated areas. Airplane mode shuts off cellular and Wi-Fi radios and may prevent map downloads or Assisted-GPS data, making it an unsuitable choice for continuous navigation.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
How does GPS work without cellular or Wi-Fi networks?
What is Assisted-GPS (A-GPS), and how does it differ from regular GPS?
Why is enabling Wi-Fi alone insufficient for precise location tracking in rural areas?
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