CompTIA A+ Practice Test (220-1201)
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CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (V15) Information
CompTIA A+ Certification Overview
Exam Versions
The current versions of the CompTIA A+ certification exams are:
- 220-1201 (Core 1)
- 220-1202 (Core 2)
These versions were launched in April 2022 and are expected to retire approximately three years from their release date.
The A+ Certification Test
To earn the CompTIA A+ certification, candidates must pass two separate exams: 220-1201 and 220-1202. Each exam has a separate fee and can be taken in any order. Both exams must be completed before the retirement date and must be from the same set of objectives. The certification is valid for three years from the date of passing the exams.
Exam Details:
- Format: Computer-based tests
- Number of Questions: 90 questions per exam
- Time Limit: 90 minutes per exam
- Result Availability: Immediately after completion, following a short mandatory survey
CompTIA A+ 220-1201
The CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (Core 1) exam is a key component of the A+ certification, designed to validate essential IT skills and knowledge. This exam, launched in April 2022, covers a broad range of topics critical for IT professionals, including mobile devices, networking technology, hardware, virtualization and cloud computing, and network troubleshooting. Comprising 90 questions, the test includes multiple-choice and performance-based questions, simulating real-world scenarios to assess the candidate's practical abilities. The 220-1201 exam emphasizes the foundational skills necessary for IT support roles, ensuring that certified individuals are equipped to handle a variety of technical issues. With a 90-minute time limit, the exam challenges candidates to demonstrate their proficiency efficiently, providing immediate results upon completion. The certification remains valid for three years, making it a crucial step for those aiming to establish or advance their careers in IT.
Exam Policies and Procedures
Candidates must agree to CompTIA's exam policies before starting the test. These policies include:
- No Mobile Phones/Devices: Must be left outside the exam room
- Question Review: Candidates can revisit and change answers before submitting the exam
- Submission: Unanswered questions are marked, and a final review is available before submission
Testing Centers
Since July 9, 2012, CompTIA exams are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers. Candidates can book exams online, by phone, or at the testing center. Options include:
- In-Person Testing: At Pearson VUE testing centers
- Online Testing: Through Pearson VUE's online platform
Performance-Based Questions (PBQs)
The A+ exams include Performance-Based Questions (PBQs), which require candidates to perform specific tasks or solve problems in a simulated environment. These questions test real-world skills in areas like command prompts, Windows OS, and networking environments.
Continuing Education (CE) Program
Certifications with the +CE (Continuing Education) suffix, including A+, Network+, and Security+, must be renewed every three years. Renewal options include:
- Retaking the Exam: Passing the latest version of the exam
- Higher-Level Certification: Passing a higher-level CompTIA exam
- CE Program Requirements: Completing CE activities
Lifetime Certifications
Certifications earned on or before December 31, 2010, are valid for life. However, lifetime certifications are no longer available for new candidates.
More reading:

Free CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (V15) Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited
- Mobile DevicesNetworkingHardwareVirtualization and Cloud ComputingHardware and Network Troubleshooting
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You would like to be able to monitor the traffic on your local network. Which tool would allow you to do this?
Loopback plug
Cable tester
Network tap
Toner probe
Answer Description
A network tap is a hardware device that allows for the non-intrusive monitoring of network traffic. It is used to capture and analyze the data flowing through a network segment without disrupting the network's normal operation. Network taps are commonly employed for various purposes, including network troubleshooting, security monitoring, and performance analysis. A loopback plug tests a device's network port, a cable tester verifies the physical integrity of a cable, and a toner probe is used to trace a specific cable within a bundle.
Ask Bash
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What exactly is a network tap, and how does it work?
How is a network tap different from a port mirroring feature on a switch?
When should you use a network tap over other monitoring tools like software-based packet analyzers?
A mid-sized financial firm requires a cloud deployment model that accommodates their need to maintain sensitive data on-premises due to regulatory requirements, while still utilizing cloud-based services for less sensitive operations like project collaboration and company email. Which of the following cloud deployment models would be most suitable for them?
Public cloud
Private cloud
Community cloud
Hybrid cloud
Answer Description
A hybrid cloud model would be the most suitable option as it combines the features of both private and public clouds. It allows sensitive data to remain on-premises in a private cloud, addressing the regulatory requirements, while leveraging the scalability of public cloud services for collaboration tools and email. A private cloud alone would not offer the same level of scalability and resource availability as a hybrid model, and a public cloud does not provide the same level of control over sensitive data. A community cloud involves sharing infrastructure between organizations with common interests, which is not specified as a requirement in this scenario.
Ask Bash
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What is a hybrid cloud model?
Why is a private cloud not suitable in this scenario?
How does a hybrid cloud address regulatory requirements?
During a server diagnostic checkup, you notice that the LED indicator near the server's hard drives is blinking green. What does this most likely indicate in the context of hard drive activity?
Drive failure or fault
Normal drive activity (read/write operations)
Drive is powered but idle
No power to the drive
Answer Description
A blinking green LED next to a hard drive typically indicates normal operational activity such as reading from or writing to the drive. This does not signal an error or failure. On the opposite side, a solid green usually means the drive has power but is not currently in active use. A blinking amber can indicate a drive failure or a fault, while a solid amber might signify a serious issue like hardware failure. It is important for technicians to distinguish these statuses for efficient troubleshooting.
Ask Bash
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What is the purpose of LED indicators on server hard drives?
Why do hard drives need visual indicators like LEDs?
What should a technician do if a server hard drive LED blinks amber?
Which characteristic of Apple's Lightning connector differentiates it from older micro-USB connectors found on many other smartphones?
It contains 24 pins that enable native Thunderbolt video output.
It is reversible and can be inserted into the port in either orientation.
It uses a keyed notch that must be aligned before insertion.
It supports fiber-optic data transmission over copper cabling.
Answer Description
The Lightning plug is designed so that the eight pins are duplicated on both sides, allowing it to be inserted into the port with either side facing up. Older micro-USB plugs are keyed and work only in one orientation. Lightning does not use fiber-optic conductors, does not rely on a keyed notch for alignment, and it has 8 pins-not 24-for Thunderbolt video output.
Ask Bash
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What does it mean that the Lightning connector is reversible?
How does the Lightning connector compare to micro-USB in terms of design and usability?
Why does the Lightning connector only have 8 pins while not supporting Thunderbolt video output?
A technician needs to install a new high-performance storage device into a small form factor (SFF) workstation that will be used for graphic design and video editing work. The workstation has a high-speed M.2 slot available on the motherboard. Which storage type should the technician install to BEST meet the workstation's performance needs?
An mSATA Solid State Drive using SATA III interface
A Non-volatile Memory Express (NVMe) M.2 Solid State Drive (SSD)
A 7,200rpm 2.5-inch Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA) Hard Drive
An externally connected USB 3.0 Hard Disk Drive with 5,400rpm speed
Answer Description
An NVMe M.2 SSD would be the best choice for the high-performance storage device in this scenario. NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) drives utilize the PCIe bus for significantly faster data transfer speeds compared to SATA interfaces. The small form factor of the M.2 drive makes it ideal for the SFF workstation while providing ample speed for intensive tasks like graphic design and video editing.
Ask Bash
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What is the difference between NVMe and SATA storage?
What is an M.2 slot, and why is it used in modern systems?
Why is NVMe preferred for graphic design and video editing?
A company IT security policy mandates multifactor authentication to access corporate email on mobile devices. An employee who has just been issued a new company phone must configure this access. The phone is already set up to receive a one-time SMS code during sign-in. Which of the following would be the BEST option to satisfy the policy's requirement for a second, distinct authentication factor?
Add multiple email addresses as a recovery option for the corporate email account.
Set up a secure folder within the device where corporate emails can be stored separately from personal data.
Configure a biometric scan, such as fingerprint or facial recognition, to be required upon accessing the corporate email application.
Instruct the employee to set a complex passcode that must be entered to unlock the device before accessing the email application.
Answer Description
A biometric scan (fingerprint or facial recognition) is an inherence factor-"something the user is"-and therefore different from the SMS one-time code, which is a possession factor-"something the user has". Using two different categories of factors provides true MFA and, in most environments, biometrics are considered stronger and more phishing-resistant than a knowledge factor such as a passcode.
While a complex device passcode is also a valid knowledge factor, it does not offer the same level of resistance to phishing or shoulder-surfing attacks as biometrics. Placing email in a secure folder does not add an authentication factor, and adding recovery email addresses is an account-recovery step, not authentication.
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What are the three factors of multifactor authentication (MFA)?
Why are biometrics considered stronger than passwords as an MFA factor?
How does using multiple factors improve resistance to phishing attacks?
Which of the following best describes the primary benefit of using Platform as a Service (PaaS) for application development?
It offers the highest level of security for applications.
It includes pre-configured virtual machines for faster deployment.
It allows developers to build applications without managing the underlying infrastructure.
It provides the cheapest option for hosting applications and services.
Answer Description
PaaS provides a complete development environment in the cloud, meaning developers can build and deploy applications without worrying about underlying infrastructure like servers or networking. This allows for rapid development and deployment cycles, making it ideal for dynamic, scalable applications. While other aspects such as cost-effectiveness, integrated development tools, and security are also important, the key benefit of PaaS is the ability to develop, deploy, and manage applications efficiently.
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What is Platform as a Service (PaaS)?
How does PaaS differ from Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) and Software as a Service (SaaS)?
What kinds of applications are best suited for PaaS?
A warehouse employee reports that his desktop PC randomly freezes or reboots during the day. While the system is running, it emits a constant high-pitched squealing noise from inside the case. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem?
Sticking keyboard keys
Corrupt or incompatible device driver
Battery not charging
A failed cooling fan causing the system to overheat
Answer Description
Warehouses accumulate dust that can clog or seize cooling fans. A failing fan often produces a high-pitched squeal when its bearings wear out. With the fan unable to move air, the CPU and internal components overheat, triggering system instability such as random freezes or reboots. Battery issues or sticking keys would not create the described noise, and bad driver software would not account for the mechanical squeal.
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What are the signs of a failing cooling fan in a PC?
Why does overheating cause a PC to freeze or reboot?
How can dust impact PC hardware performance?
The act of sharing internet connectivity via the use of a cellular device's internet connection is called:
Docking
Transmitting
Tethering
Splicing
Answer Description
Sharing a device's cellularly connected internet to nearby devices is called tethering.
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How does tethering work?
What is the difference between tethering and a mobile hotspot?
Are there any limitations or costs associated with tethering?
Which port and protocol combination is MOST appropriate to ensure encrypted file transfers between a client and server?
Port 23 - Telnet
Port 22 - SSH
Port 20/21 - FTP
Port 110 - POP3
Answer Description
Secure Shell (SSH) operates over port 22 and provides a secure method of accessing network services over an unsecured network. When it comes to file transfers, SSH is the protocol that is commonly used to secure them. SSH uses encryption to secure the connection between the client and server, making it the best choice for encrypted file transfers. While FTP (port 20/21) is used for file transfers, it is not inherently secure. Telnet (port 23) is used for remote command-line login and does not support file transfers. Port 110 is used by POP3 for email retrieval and does not involve direct file transfer capabilities.
Ask Bash
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What other protocols work over SSH for secure file transfers?
Why isn't FTP considered secure for file transfers?
How does SSH encryption protect data during file transfers?
Which of the following ports is the standard for unencrypted Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) communications?
53
636
443
389
Answer Description
The standard port for unencrypted Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is TCP port 389. LDAP over SSL/TLS (LDAPS), which is encrypted, uses TCP port 636. Port 53 is used by the Domain Name System (DNS), and port 443 is the standard for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) traffic.
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What is LDAP and what is it used for?
Why does LDAP use different ports for encrypted and unencrypted communication?
What is the difference between LDAP and DNS in terms of functionality?
You have been tasked by the network team to assign a server a new static IP address. When you try to apply the IP 172.256.1.15 with a subnet mask of 255.0.0.0, the system returns an error. What is causing the error?
There is not enough information provided to determine the problem.
The DHCP server is not assigning an IP address, so the computer generated an APIPA address.
The IP address is invalid.
172.x.x.x is a Class B address but the subnet mask is the default for Class A.
Answer Description
In IPv4 each octet is 8 bits, so its decimal value must be between 0 and 255. Because the second octet in 172.256.1.15 is 256, the address is syntactically invalid and the operating system rejects it. APIPA addresses (169.254.x.x) are unrelated because you are manually configuring a static IP. Likewise, DHCP plays no role in this manual assignment, and there is no requirement that a Class B network (172.x.x.x) use its historical default subnet mask (255.255.0.0); using a Class A mask with a Class B address is legal but uncommon. Therefore, the only real problem is the invalid octet value.
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Why must each IPv4 octet value be between 0 and 255?
What happens if an invalid IP address is entered during static configuration?
Can a Class B IP address use a Class A subnet mask?
A business owner wishes to install an IP surveillance camera in a location that lacks electrical outlets. The network switch used in the office environment does not support PoE. What device should the owner use to supply both power and data connectivity to the camera using a single Ethernet cable?
Power over Ethernet injector
Uninterruptable Power Supply (UPS)
PoE splitter
Network switch with built-in PoE capability
Answer Description
A Power over Ethernet injector is used in scenarios where a device requires both power and data but the network switch in use doesn't support PoE. The injector adds power capabilities to the network line allowing the device to be powered over the same cable as the data, thus eliminating the need for a separate power source. A PoE splitter is incorrect because it performs the opposite function, separating the power and data signals at the receiving end. An Uninterruptable Power Supply (UPS) is used for power backup and cannot inject PoE into the cable. And a network switch with built-in PoE is not applicable because the scenario specified that the switch lacks PoE.
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What is a Power over Ethernet (PoE) injector?
How is a PoE injector different from a PoE splitter?
Why wouldn’t a network switch with built-in PoE be ideal in this scenario?
A small research team is setting up a temporary field office in a remote mountainous region where no wired or cellular internet services can reach. Which type of internet connection would be most suitable for their needs, given the geographical limitations?
Cable
DSL
Satellite
Fiber
Answer Description
Satellite internet is the correct answer because it does not rely on ground infrastructure like telephone lines or cable networks and can provide coverage in remote and rural areas where traditional internet services are unavailable. Fiber, Cable, and DSL all require physical, terrestrial infrastructure that is typically not present in remote or mountainous regions, making them unsuitable for this scenario.
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How does satellite internet work?
What are the limitations of satellite internet?
What equipment is needed for satellite internet setup?
An end-user needs to configure their email client to retrieve emails securely. Which port should the client be configured to use to securely connect to a server using POP3?
110
995
587
993
Answer Description
Port 995 is the designated port for secure POP3 communications, also known as POP3S or POP3 over SSL/TLS. When configuring an email client to retrieve emails securely via POP3, it should be set to use this port, which facilitates encrypted communication to prevent eavesdropping. Port 110 is used for non-secure POP3 connections. Port 587 is for submitting emails via SMTP securely using STARTTLS. Port 993 is typically used for the secure version of the IMAP protocol (IMAPS).
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What is the difference between POP3 and IMAP?
How does SSL/TLS encryption secure port 995?
Why can't we use port 110 for secure POP3 communication?
When planning an on-premises VDI deployment for about 200 office workers, which factor is typically the first sizing constraint that determines how many virtual desktops a single host or cluster can support?
Internet egress bandwidth
Storage I/O performance (IOPS and latency)
Multifactor authentication policies
Licensing cost
Answer Description
Storage I/O performance (measured in available IOPS and latency) is usually the primary bottleneck in an on-premises VDI environment. During boot, logon, antivirus scans and other "I/O storms," hundreds of desktops can generate intense, bursty disk traffic. If the shared storage array cannot deliver enough IOPS with low latency, desktops will feel sluggish no matter how much CPU, RAM or network capacity is available. Adequate LAN bandwidth and strong security are important, but they rarely limit user experience in a local deployment before storage throughput does.
Ask Bash
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What are IOPS and how do they affect VDI performance?
Why is storage latency important for virtual desktops?
What is the difference between local storage and shared storage for VDI?
Which of the following statements about NVMe is true?
NVMe is a protocol for accessing data.
NVMe is a type of hard-drive connector.
NVMe must use the M.2 form factor.
NVMe is significantly faster than M.2-based drives.
Answer Description
Non-Volatile Memory Express (NVMe) is a high-performance protocol that defines how a system reads from and writes to non-volatile solid-state storage over PCIe. Because it is a protocol (logical interface), it can be implemented on drives that use various physical form factors and connectors such as M.2, U.2, or add-in PCIe cards. M.2, by contrast, is merely a physical form-factor specification, not a storage protocol, so the two are not directly comparable.
Ask Bash
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What does NVMe do?
How does NVMe differ from M.2?
Why is NVMe faster than older protocols like SATA?
A user's desktop randomly powers off several times a day with no error messages or other warning signs. No recent hardware or software changes have been made. As the technician, which hardware component should you troubleshoot first based on this symptom?
Power-supply unit (PSU)
Central processing unit (CPU)
Motherboard
Random-access memory (RAM)
Answer Description
Frequent, unexplained shutdowns are most often linked to an unstable or failing power-supply unit (PSU). If the PSU cannot deliver consistent voltage-because of internal component failure, aging capacitors, or external line sags-the system will abruptly lose power. In contrast, CPU thermal problems are usually preceded by fan noise or temperature warnings; bad RAM tends to generate POST beeps or blue-screen errors; and motherboard faults typically appear as POST failures or complete power loss, not intermittent shutdowns. Therefore, start by verifying PSU output and connections.
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What are the common signs of a failing PSU?
How do you test if a PSU is failing?
Can external factors cause PSU failure symptoms?
A workgroup laser printer is producing pages that are completely covered with loose black toner that rubs off on the user's hands. Which printer component is MOST likely failing?
Transfer roller/corona
Fuser assembly
Toner cartridge
Pickup roller
Answer Description
The fuser assembly uses heat and pressure to melt the toner particles into the paper fibers. If the fuser does not reach or maintain the correct temperature (or its pressure roller is damaged), the toner will not bond to the paper and will appear as loose black dust or smears. Replacing the fuser or adjusting the media type settings in the printer is the typical fix. A bad toner cartridge or transfer roller can cause other defects, but they will not leave large areas of unfused toner that rubs off.
Ask Bash
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What does the fuser assembly do in a laser printer?
What are the common signs that a fuser assembly is failing?
How is the fuser assembly different from the toner cartridge?
Which connector type was historically used for connecting high-speed hard disks, optical drives, and scanners, primarily in server and workstation environments?
HDMI
SATA
USB
SCSI
Answer Description
The correct answer is SCSI, which stands for Small Computer System Interface. This interface standard was used extensively for connecting various types of devices such as hard drives, scanners, and CD/DVD drives, especially in server and professional workstation setups. Over time, it has largely been superseded by newer technologies like SATA and USB for personal computer use, but the knowledge of SCSI remains important for the A+ certification as it represents a foundational technology in computer architecture. Other listed connector types such as SATA, HDMI, and USB are incorrect because they serve different purposes: SATA is dominantly used for connecting internal drives in consumer PCs, HDMI is mainly for audio and video connections, and USB is a universal port for many types of peripherals.
Ask Bash
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What is the role of SCSI in computer systems?
How does SCSI differ from SATA in terms of functionality?
Why has SCSI been largely replaced by newer technologies?
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