CompTIA A+ Practice Test (220-1201)
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CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (V15) Information
CompTIA A+ Certification Overview
Exam Versions
The current versions of the CompTIA A+ certification exams are:
- 220-1201 (Core 1)
- 220-1202 (Core 2)
These versions were launched in April 2022 and are expected to retire approximately three years from their release date.
The A+ Certification Test
To earn the CompTIA A+ certification, candidates must pass two separate exams: 220-1201 and 220-1202. Each exam has a separate fee and can be taken in any order. Both exams must be completed before the retirement date and must be from the same set of objectives. The certification is valid for three years from the date of passing the exams.
Exam Details:
- Format: Computer-based tests
- Number of Questions: 90 questions per exam
- Time Limit: 90 minutes per exam
- Result Availability: Immediately after completion, following a short mandatory survey
CompTIA A+ 220-1201
The CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (Core 1) exam is a key component of the A+ certification, designed to validate essential IT skills and knowledge. This exam, launched in April 2022, covers a broad range of topics critical for IT professionals, including mobile devices, networking technology, hardware, virtualization and cloud computing, and network troubleshooting. Comprising 90 questions, the test includes multiple-choice and performance-based questions, simulating real-world scenarios to assess the candidate's practical abilities. The 220-1201 exam emphasizes the foundational skills necessary for IT support roles, ensuring that certified individuals are equipped to handle a variety of technical issues. With a 90-minute time limit, the exam challenges candidates to demonstrate their proficiency efficiently, providing immediate results upon completion. The certification remains valid for three years, making it a crucial step for those aiming to establish or advance their careers in IT.
Exam Policies and Procedures
Candidates must agree to CompTIA's exam policies before starting the test. These policies include:
- No Mobile Phones/Devices: Must be left outside the exam room
- Question Review: Candidates can revisit and change answers before submitting the exam
- Submission: Unanswered questions are marked, and a final review is available before submission
Testing Centers
Since July 9, 2012, CompTIA exams are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers. Candidates can book exams online, by phone, or at the testing center. Options include:
- In-Person Testing: At Pearson VUE testing centers
- Online Testing: Through Pearson VUE's online platform
Performance-Based Questions (PBQs)
The A+ exams include Performance-Based Questions (PBQs), which require candidates to perform specific tasks or solve problems in a simulated environment. These questions test real-world skills in areas like command prompts, Windows OS, and networking environments.
Continuing Education (CE) Program
Certifications with the +CE (Continuing Education) suffix, including A+, Network+, and Security+, must be renewed every three years. Renewal options include:
- Retaking the Exam: Passing the latest version of the exam
- Higher-Level Certification: Passing a higher-level CompTIA exam
- CE Program Requirements: Completing CE activities
Lifetime Certifications
Certifications earned on or before December 31, 2010, are valid for life. However, lifetime certifications are no longer available for new candidates.
More reading:
Free CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (V15) Practice Test
Press start when you are ready, or press Change to modify any settings for the practice test.
- Questions: 20
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:Mobile DevicesNetworkingHardwareVirtualization and Cloud ComputingHardware and Network Troubleshooting
A technician is setting up a new computer in an office to connect to a printer shared over the network by a Windows server. Which of the following protocols is primarily used to handle the communication for file and printer sharing in this environment?
Domain Name System (DNS)
Server Message Block (SMB)/Common Internet File System (CIFS)
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Server Message Block (SMB)/Common Internet File System (CIFS)'. In Windows environments, SMB is the primary protocol used for sharing resources like files and printers across a network. While other protocols are essential for network operation, they do not serve this specific function. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is for sending email, Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is used for dynamically assigning IP addresses, and Domain Name System (DNS) is used for resolving hostnames to IP addresses.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the SMB/CIFS protocol and how does it work?
How is SMB different from other protocols like DHCP and DNS?
Why is SMB commonly used in Windows environments?
What is the name of the native hypervisor found on Windows 10 Pro and higher operating systems?
None of these options
ESXi
Hyper-V
LXD
Answer Description
Hyper-V is a native hypervisor installed onto some Windows 10 and Windows Server operating systems. It is important to note that Hyper-V is not supported on Windows 10 Home. LXD is a hypervisor that runs on Linux operating systems and ESXi is a proprietary hypervisor from VMWare that runs directly on a host machine (bare metal) without the need for a host operating system.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a hypervisor?
What are the system requirements for Hyper-V on Windows 10?
How does Hyper-V differ from VMware's ESXi?
Which of the following is a common purpose for creating a virtual machine on a client-side environment?
Rapid elasticity
File synchronization
Metered utilization
Sandbox
Answer Description
Sandboxing is a popular use of virtual machines (VMs) on client-side environments, allowing software to be executed in a controlled and isolated environment. This is particularly useful for testing untrusted software or code without risk to the host system or network. While other reasons for using VMs exist, sandboxing provides the advantage of security and isolation.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is sandboxing in the context of virtual machines?
How does sandboxing differ from traditional antivirus software?
What are some other use cases for virtual machines besides sandboxing?
Michael Bolton, a customer support specialist, calls the help desk because some of his print jobs are ending up on a printer located on another floor. He wants all future documents to print only on the device next to his desk. Which of the following is the BEST step to take next?
Remove the other network printers from his installed printer list
Update the printer driver and firmware for the nearby device
Restart the Windows Print Spooler service
Verify (and set) the default printer in the operating-system settings
Answer Description
The operating system sends print jobs to whichever device is configured as the default printer. Verifying (and if necessary changing) the default-printer setting ensures Michael's documents go to the correct device without affecting other network printers. Other actions (such as restarting the spooler, updating drivers, or removing printers) do not directly address default routing and may create additional issues.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a default printer in operating-system settings?
How does the Windows Print Spooler service work?
Why wouldn’t removing other network printers solve the issue?
A user reports that their computer has started to shut down randomly. During your initial assessment, you learned that the user recently installed new software for photo editing that requires substantial system resources. What should be your immediate next step in troubleshooting this issue, according to best practices?
Safely power off the computer and add an additional hard drive to allow ample disk space for the new resource intensive software.
Perform a backup of the user’s system to prevent any potential data loss during problem resolution.
Inform the user to unplug the computer from the power source to prevent further unexpected shutdowns.
Reinstall the operating system immediately, as the new software could have caused system instability.
Answer Description
Before proceeding with any troubleshooting steps, it is crucial to perform a system backup if applicable. This ensures that any current data can be restored if something goes wrong during troubleshooting. Since the issue arose after new software was installed, it is logical to suspect that the new software could be related, but no changes should be made to the system before ensuring that the user's data is safely backed up. Informing the user about unplugging the computer from the power source does not directly relate to protecting user data and may not be suitable for all shutdown issues. Reinstalling the operating system without a backup is an extreme measure that risks data loss and should not be done without prior backups. Upgrading the system hardware without backing up data or further investigation may not address the issue correctly and can lead to unnecessary costs or complications.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is performing a backup the best first step in troubleshooting?
How do system resource-intensive programs affect computer performance?
What are the risks of reinstalling the operating system without a backup?
Your supervisor wants to replace the office's fiber-optic connection with a less-expensive satellite Internet service. The office depends on the link for VoIP phone calls, email, and cloud-based file storage. After researching costs you discover that a satellite plan is indeed cheaper. Why would you advise against making the change?
Satellite links cannot be encrypted, creating a compliance and security problem.
The high latency of a satellite connection would degrade VoIP call quality.
You don't-saving money with no performance change is a great idea.
Switching to satellite would require rewiring the entire LAN, which would erase any cost savings.
Answer Description
Geostationary satellite links introduce very high latency (often 500 ms or more) because every packet must travel about 35,000 km to space and back. That delay causes noticeable echo and talk-over on VoIP calls and degrades other real-time applications such as video conferencing. Satellite service is also susceptible to weather outages (rain-fade). The indoor satellite modem usually presents a standard RJ-45 Ethernet hand-off, so rewiring the local network is unnecessary, and normal IP-based encryption (HTTPS, VPN, etc.) works over satellite just like any other medium.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is latency and why is it an issue for VoIP calls?
What is rain-fade and how does it affect satellite internet?
How does satellite internet encryption work compared to fiber-optic connections?
A newly hired employee will work from home and needs to use an internal customer-relationship management (CRM) web application that is reachable only from inside the corporate network. Which of the following actions should the IT technician perform FIRST on the employee's laptop so the user can reach the CRM?
Update the laptop's antivirus signatures and run a full system scan.
Change the local firewall profile from Public to Private and open port 80 inbound.
Establish a VPN connection to the corporate network using company-issued credentials.
Install a third-party browser extension that supports legacy TLS cipher suites.
Answer Description
Because the CRM is hosted on the company's intranet, the laptop must first be logically attached to that network. Establishing a corporate VPN tunnel authenticates the user and routes traffic to internal resources. Changing local firewall settings, adding browser extensions, or updating antivirus software does not create the required network path and therefore will not allow the user to reach the CRM.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a VPN and why is it needed to access a corporate network?
How does a VPN authenticate a user connecting to the corporate network?
Why are local firewall settings and browser extensions not suitable in this scenario?
A software development company is working on a project that requires testing its application across different operating systems without the need for multiple physical machines. What is the best virtualization approach to meet this requirement?
High availability setup
Application virtualization
Sandbox environment
Legacy software emulation
Answer Description
Application virtualization allows developers to create virtual instances of their applications that can run across different operating systems without needing multiple physical machines or extensive manual setup. This is especially useful for testing and development environments.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is application virtualization?
How does application virtualization differ from full system virtualization?
What are the advantages of application virtualization for developers?
A client has reported that the documents printed from their laser printer have toner that easily smears with minimal contact. You have already checked and confirmed that the correct media type is being used and the printer's environment is within operational specifications. Which of the following could be the cause of the toner not properly fusing to the paper?
The toner cartridge is low on toner.
There's a mismatch in the paper size settings.
The print density settings are too low.
The fuser assembly is malfunctioning or has failed.
Answer Description
If the toner is not fusing correctly to the paper, that indicates an issue with the fuser assembly, which is responsible for bonding the toner to the paper through heat and pressure. The fuser assembly either isn't reaching the necessary temperature or isn't maintaining it. The other options listed are less likely causes of this specific problem because they do not directly impact the fuser assembly's function.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the role of a fuser assembly in a laser printer?
How can you tell if a fuser assembly is malfunctioning?
What maintenance or replacement options are available for a faulty fuser assembly?
A technician is setting up a new laptop for a user who frequently travels and requires access to their corporate email from various locations. The laptop will not be permanently connected to the company's active directory domain. Which of the following is the MOST efficient method for the user to ensure their email, calendar, and contacts are synchronized across all their devices?
Rely on manual updates by regularly exporting and importing mail, calendar, and contacts to the laptop
Install a third-party synchronization software specific to the laptop's operating system
Using a USB drive regularly to back up and transfer the PST files from the company's mail server
Configure a Microsoft 365 account for email synchronization with the laptop
Answer Description
Setting up a Microsoft 365 account for email synchronization is the most efficient method for a traveling user to maintain consistency across multiple devices. Microsoft 365 allows for seamless integration of mail, calendar, and contacts and offers the flexibility to synchronize this data on any device with internet connectivity. A bonus is the capability to work offline and later sync when connected.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is Microsoft 365, and how does it support email synchronization?
What are the advantages of Microsoft 365 for traveling users?
How does email synchronization with Microsoft 365 differ from manual methods like PST files?
When setting up domain name settings for a client's company, you are directed to assign a DNS resource record to facilitate inbound emails to their onsite electronic message handling server. Which type of DNS resource record will you need to configure?
CNAME record to alias the company's domain to the email server's domain.
AAAA record for linking the domain solely to an IPv6 address.
MX record to define the destination mail server and its priority for the domain.
A record to direct internet traffic to the specific host where the server is located.
Answer Description
A Mail Exchanger (MX) record directs the flow of email by specifying the mail server responsible for accepting email messages for the domain and is essential for any domain that intends to receive emails. In contrast, an 'A' record links a domain to an IP address for general purpose use, and 'AAAA' records are similar but for IPv6 addresses. A 'CNAME' record creates an alias for a domain, which is not applicable for directing email traffic.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is an MX record in DNS?
How is an MX record different from an A record?
Why wouldn't a CNAME or AAAA record work for email routing?
Which RAID level stores an exact mirror copy of data on two or more drives, allowing the array to continue operating without permanent data loss if one drive in the set fails?
RAID 0
RAID 10
RAID 5
RAID 1
Answer Description
RAID 1 mirrors (duplicates) all data on each disk in the array. If any one drive fails, the data remains available on the surviving drive(s), so no permanent data loss occurs until additional failures happen. Other listed RAID levels cannot tolerate a single-disk failure without risking data loss (RAID 0) or rely on parity calculations rather than mirroring (RAID 5), or combine striping and mirroring in nested form (RAID 10).
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is RAID 1 considered more reliable than RAID 0?
How does RAID 1 compare to RAID 5 in handling drive failures?
What is RAID 10, and how does it differ from RAID 1?
A technician is tasked with upgrading the RAM in a laptop. Which of the following is the MOST important factor the technician should consider to ensure compatibility?
The brand and warranty of the RAM module
The storage capacity of the laptop's HDD or SSD
The type and speed of the RAM supported by the laptop's motherboard
The physical size of the RAM module
Answer Description
The most important factor that the technician should consider is the type and speed of the RAM supported by the laptop's motherboard. RAM modules can vary by their standard, such as DDR3, DDR4, or DDR5, and their speed, measured in MHz. Using a module that is not supported by the motherboard can either lead to suboptimal performance or, more likely, the laptop will not function with the incompatible RAM installed. Different RAM generations are not physically or electrically backward or forward compatible.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does it mean for RAM to be compatible with a motherboard?
Why can’t DDR4 RAM be used in a motherboard designed for DDR3?
What is the role of MHz in RAM compatibility?
The mouse pointer on your Windows laptop slowly drifts in one direction even when you are not touching any input device. You unplug the external USB mouse, but the drifting continues. Which action should you try first to troubleshoot the problem?
Disable the laptop's touchpad and test for drift again.
Turn on Scroll Lock.
Replace the mouse because its driver is conflicting with the touchpad.
Verify that none of the arrow keys are stuck.
Answer Description
Cursor drift that persists after removing an external mouse often points to a built-in touchpad that is overly sensitive, has a driver fault, or is physically damaged. Temporarily disabling the touchpad forces the system to rely on an external pointing device and confirms whether the touchpad is the source of the unwanted movement. Replacing the mouse or checking arrow keys and Scroll Lock are unlikely to stop drift that still occurs with the mouse disconnected.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What causes unwanted cursor drift on a laptop touchpad?
How do you disable a touchpad in Windows?
What should you check before replacing a touchpad?
A technician is installing a new power supply in an office located in Europe. The power outlets in the office provide 230 V AC. Which of the following power supplies should the technician select?
A power supply that supports only 110-120 VAC.
A power supply that provides a 230 V DC output.
A power supply that supports an input voltage of 220-240 VAC.
A power supply with a manual voltage switch set to the 115 V position.
Answer Description
European mains voltage is standardized at 230 V, with a tolerance typically between 220 V and 240 V. A computer's power supply unit (PSU) must be able to accept this input voltage. Many modern PSUs are auto-ranging or have a manual selector switch. Selecting a PSU that only supports 110-120 V, or using the incorrect setting on a manual switch, would likely damage the unit and potentially other system components due to overvoltage.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does VAC stand for in power supply terminology?
What is the difference between auto-ranging and manual voltage switch PSUs?
Why is using a PSU with incorrect voltage support dangerous?
A corporate employee reports that their laptop's fingerprint reader, which is required for secure access to company resources, has become unresponsive. Prior to contacting support, they had already performed a system reboot with no success. What should be the next step in troubleshooting the issue?
Restart the biometric service via the services management console to address any service-related issues.
Recommend that the user update the laptop's operating system to the latest version to ensure compatibility.
Advise the user to reset their biometric profile through the account settings immediately.
Verify that the biometric device is enabled and functioning correctly in device manager.
Answer Description
When a fingerprint reader is unresponsive, verifying that the biometric device is enabled and functioning in the device manager is an essential step. If the device is disabled or has an error, it may appear unresponsive to the user. Restarting the biometric service can resolve issues if the service that manages biometric devices has stopped or malfunctioned. Resetting the user's biometric profile or updating system software would typically follow after confirming the hardware status and ensuring that the essential services are operational.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is Device Manager, and how does it help in troubleshooting hardware issues?
What is the role of the biometric service in a Windows system?
What steps should be taken if a fingerprint reader shows an error in Device Manager?
A technician is upgrading the storage on a mobile device. The device currently has a 2.5-inch mechanical hard drive and there is a need for faster data access and improved shock resistance. Which of the following storage solutions should the technician choose to provide the BEST overall improvement to performance and durability?
Upgrade to an M.2 form factor SSD.
Install a 2.5-inch solid-state drive (SSD).
Increase the capacity of the existing mechanical hard drive.
Replace with a higher RPM 2.5-inch mechanical hard drive.
Answer Description
A 2.5-inch solid-state drive (SSD) will provide significantly better data access speeds and shock resistance compared to a mechanical hard drive, and it will fit in the mobile device's existing 2.5-inch drive slot. While an M.2 SSD could offer even better performance, the scenario implies the device has a 2.5-inch drive bay and does not mention a compatible M.2 slot, making the 2.5-inch SSD the best compatible option.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the key differences between an SSD and a mechanical hard drive?
What is the significance of the 2.5-inch form factor in storage devices?
Why is a 2.5-inch SSD chosen over an M.2 SSD in this scenario?
A company wants to ensure that its critical web application is available at all times, without any significant downtime. Which cloud characteristic should they prioritize when selecting a cloud service provider?
High availability
Metered utilization
Rapid elasticity
Shared resources
Answer Description
High availability is the correct answer because it ensures that computing resources remain accessible and operational with minimal or no noticeable downtime. By prioritizing high availability, the company selects a cloud provider that builds redundancy and automated failover into its infrastructure, keeping the web application online even during hardware failures or maintenance. Other characteristics-shared resources, metered utilization, and rapid elasticity-offer cost or scalability benefits but do not specifically guarantee constant uptime, so they are incorrect in this context.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is high availability in cloud computing?
How does high availability differ from rapid elasticity?
What technologies are used to achieve high availability in the cloud?
A project manager wants to send a small PDF from her NFC-enabled smartphone to a colleague's NFC-equipped laptop simply by tapping the two devices together. Which wireless technology will be used to start the transfer?
Wi-Fi Direct
Bluetooth
Infrared (IrDA)
NFC
Answer Description
Near-Field Communication (NFC) is a very short-range wireless technology that establishes a connection when two NFC-enabled devices are brought within a few centimeters of each other. The action of tapping the devices together initiates the NFC connection. For small files, the transfer can happen directly over NFC. For larger files, NFC is often used to quickly establish a connection and then hand off ('bootstrap') the actual data transfer to a faster technology, such as Bluetooth or Wi-Fi Direct. Bluetooth, Wi-Fi Direct, and Infrared are all methods for wireless file transfer, but none of them are initiated by simply tapping the devices together in this manner.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
How does NFC differ from Bluetooth in wireless communication?
Can NFC-enabled devices transfer larger files directly?
What are some common use cases for NFC technology?
A technician is troubleshooting a network at a small office where users are experiencing intermittent wireless connectivity. Sometimes the connection is strong and stable, but at other times, the wireless signal drops abruptly. What is the BEST initial troubleshooting step to determine the cause?
Enable Quality of Service (QoS) settings on the router
Check for IP address conflicts on the network
Check for potential sources of signal interference
Update the wireless network adapter drivers on the users' devices
Answer Description
If users are experiencing intermittent wireless connectivity, the best initial step is to check for sources of interference. Wireless signals can be disrupted by a variety of factors, such as other wireless devices, cordless phones, microwaves, or even large metal objects and walls. Addressing interference often resolves the intermittent connectivity issue. Updating the device drivers could resolve issues related to the hardware functioning improperly, but is less likely to be a cause of intermittent signal loss or impact many users at once. Checking for IP address conflicts is a possible step if network devices are having connectivity issues, but this does not typically cause an intermittent drop in signal. Lastly, enabling QoS settings on the router can improve the quality of service for certain applications but would not resolve the fundamental issue of signal loss.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are common sources of wireless signal interference?
Why is checking for interference the BEST first step for intermittent connectivity issues?
How can you identify and resolve interference on a wireless network?
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