CompTIA A+ Practice Test (220-1201)
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CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (V15) Information
CompTIA A+ Certification Overview
Exam Versions
The current versions of the CompTIA A+ certification exams are:
- 220-1201 (Core 1)
- 220-1202 (Core 2)
These versions were launched in April 2022 and are expected to retire approximately three years from their release date.
The A+ Certification Test
To earn the CompTIA A+ certification, candidates must pass two separate exams: 220-1201 and 220-1202. Each exam has a separate fee and can be taken in any order. Both exams must be completed before the retirement date and must be from the same set of objectives. The certification is valid for three years from the date of passing the exams.
Exam Details:
- Format: Computer-based tests
- Number of Questions: 90 questions per exam
- Time Limit: 90 minutes per exam
- Result Availability: Immediately after completion, following a short mandatory survey
CompTIA A+ 220-1201
The CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (Core 1) exam is a key component of the A+ certification, designed to validate essential IT skills and knowledge. This exam, launched in April 2022, covers a broad range of topics critical for IT professionals, including mobile devices, networking technology, hardware, virtualization and cloud computing, and network troubleshooting. Comprising 90 questions, the test includes multiple-choice and performance-based questions, simulating real-world scenarios to assess the candidate's practical abilities. The 220-1201 exam emphasizes the foundational skills necessary for IT support roles, ensuring that certified individuals are equipped to handle a variety of technical issues. With a 90-minute time limit, the exam challenges candidates to demonstrate their proficiency efficiently, providing immediate results upon completion. The certification remains valid for three years, making it a crucial step for those aiming to establish or advance their careers in IT.
Exam Policies and Procedures
Candidates must agree to CompTIA's exam policies before starting the test. These policies include:
- No Mobile Phones/Devices: Must be left outside the exam room
- Question Review: Candidates can revisit and change answers before submitting the exam
- Submission: Unanswered questions are marked, and a final review is available before submission
Testing Centers
Since July 9, 2012, CompTIA exams are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers. Candidates can book exams online, by phone, or at the testing center. Options include:
- In-Person Testing: At Pearson VUE testing centers
- Online Testing: Through Pearson VUE's online platform
Performance-Based Questions (PBQs)
The A+ exams include Performance-Based Questions (PBQs), which require candidates to perform specific tasks or solve problems in a simulated environment. These questions test real-world skills in areas like command prompts, Windows OS, and networking environments.
Continuing Education (CE) Program
Certifications with the +CE (Continuing Education) suffix, including A+, Network+, and Security+, must be renewed every three years. Renewal options include:
- Retaking the Exam: Passing the latest version of the exam
- Higher-Level Certification: Passing a higher-level CompTIA exam
- CE Program Requirements: Completing CE activities
Lifetime Certifications
Certifications earned on or before December 31, 2010, are valid for life. However, lifetime certifications are no longer available for new candidates.
More reading:
Free CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (V15) Practice Test
Press start when you are ready, or press Change to modify any settings for the practice test.
- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:Mobile DevicesNetworkingHardwareVirtualization and Cloud ComputingHardware and Network Troubleshooting
Your IT department has deployed a network-attached storage (NAS) appliance so that Windows clients can open and save files over the local network. The clients connect to the share using TCP port 445, which allows file and printer sharing without relying on NetBIOS. Which application-layer protocol is the NAS using to provide this service?
File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
Server Message Block (SMB) / Common Internet File System (CIFS)
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
Network File System (NFS)
Answer Description
Server Message Block (SMB), also called Common Internet File System (CIFS), is Microsoft's file-sharing protocol. Modern implementations run directly over TCP port 445 and are commonly used by NAS devices to provide file and printer shares to Windows systems. NFS uses port 2049, FTP uses ports 20 and 21, and SMTP uses port 25, none of which match the scenario.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the different RAID levels, and how do they affect performance and redundancy?
How does RAID provide fault tolerance?
What is NAS, and how does it relate to RAID?
A company requires a solution for managing the distribution of IP addresses within its local network. Which service should be implemented to meet this requirement?
Domain Name System (DNS)
Filesharing services
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
Syslog
Answer Description
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is the correct answer because it is a network management protocol used to automate the process of configuring devices on IP networks, thus allowing them to use network services such as DNS, NTP, and any communication on an IP network. DHCP enables devices to receive an IP address automatically and ensures that addresses are unique to prevent IP conflicts, which are essential features for managing the distribution of IP addresses on a local network. DNS, while fundamental for resolving hostnames to IP addresses, does not handle the distribution of IP addresses. Filesharing services are used for sharing files across the network and Syslog is used for logging system messages; neither has a role in managing IP address distribution.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is DHCP and how does it work?
What is the difference between DHCP and static IP address configuration?
What role does DNS play in a network if it doesn't manage IP address distribution?
An employee reports that their workstation has recently suffered frequent instances of data loss and file corruption. As part of your diagnosis, what is the FIRST action you should take to determine the root cause of the issue?
Conduct an antivirus scan to rule out malware as the root cause for data loss.
Recreate the user profiles as they may be causing data mismanagement.
Check for any error messages in the S.M.A.R.T. status and LED status indicators on storage drives.
Scan for missing or damaged files within the user's file system.
Answer Description
The most logical initial step when approaching a problem with potential data loss or corruption is to check the status of any storage drives, as they directly deal with data. The LED status indicators and S.M.A.R.T. status can quickly reveal if there are hardware issues with the storage drives that could lead to data loss or corruption. Checking for missing or damaged files would typically be done after confirming that the hardware is fully operational, as file issues can be a symptom of drive distress. Recreating user profiles and conducting antivirus scans are secondary actions that address system integrity and security concerns after hardware issues have been ruled out or taken care of.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does S.M.A.R.T. stand for and why is it important?
What are LED status indicators on storage drives and what do they indicate?
What kind of file system issues might cause data loss or corruption?
An employee needs to ensure that their work-related emails, calendars, and contacts are synchronized between Microsoft 365 and their Android smartphone. Which one of the following actions is the BEST approach to achieve this synchronization while ensuring it aligns with typical corporate security policies?
Install and configure the Outlook for Android app to connect to the Microsoft 365 account.
Configure only the incoming mail server using IMAP to synchronize the emails with the smartphone.
Use a third-party mail application that supports IMAP and SMTP protocols to add the Microsoft 365 account.
Manually set up the account using Exchange ActiveSync protocols through the phone's built-in email client.
Answer Description
By using Microsoft's Outlook app, the synchronization process with Microsoft 365 is done securely and efficiently, as it is designed to work seamlessly with Microsoft's email, calendar, and contact services, and often aligns with corporate security policies that may include remote management features and encryption. A third-party mail app may not always adhere to the corporate security policies, as it could lack certain security features or data handling protocols. Enabling only IMAP would synchronize emails only and not calendar or contact data. Lastly, manual setup using Exchange protocols could work but isn't recommended over the Outlook app, as it is more complex and error-prone.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What features does the Outlook for Android app provide for synchronization?
Why is using a third-party mail application not recommended for corporate email synchronization?
Can you explain what Exchange ActiveSync is and how it works?
A user calls in to report that their email client is not able to retrieve mail from the server. They mention the client is set up for non-secure email retrieval. As you inspect their settings, you notice that they may have incorrectly configured the port for their inbound mail server. Which port should be used for the inbound mail server using non-secure IMAP?
Port 110
Port 25
Port 993
Port 143
Answer Description
Non-secure IMAP services typically use port 143. This is the default unencrypted port for IMAP, the protocol that deals with managing and retrieving email. On the other hand, port 993 is used if secure IMAP (IMAP over SSL) is configured. Port 110 is for POP3 (Post Office Protocol), another email retrieval protocol but typically used for downloading emails to the local client. Finally, port 25 is used for SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) for sending emails, not receiving.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is IMAP and how does it differ from POP3?
What is the significance of using secure ports like 993?
Why is port 25 not used for receiving emails?
During deployment of a new workstation, the user notices the desktop monitor has a persistent green tint. Swapping to a known-good monitor does not resolve the problem. Which of the following should be investigated NEXT to troubleshoot this color-display issue?
Adjust the color-calibration settings in the operating system
Inspect and, if necessary, replace the video cable
Update the graphics-driver software
Replace the graphics card with a new one
Answer Description
Because replacing the monitor did not eliminate the green tint, the next logical step is to inspect the connection between the PC and display. A loose, damaged, or bent-pin video cable can drop one or more color channels, producing a noticeable tint. Re-seating or replacing the cable is a quick, low-cost step before pursuing driver updates or hardware replacement.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What types of video cables are commonly used to connect monitors?
What are common symptoms of a faulty video cable?
How can I check if my graphics driver needs an update?
Which cloud model is designed to be used by a group of organizations with shared interests or requirements?
Public cloud
Hybrid cloud
Community cloud
Private cloud
Answer Description
A community cloud is designed to be used by multiple organizations that have common interests, such as security requirements or compliance considerations. It allows them to share infrastructure, resources, and services, while meeting their shared needs. Other models such as private and public clouds serve different purposes: a private cloud is for a single organization, and a public cloud is available to the general public.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the main advantages of using a community cloud?
How does a community cloud differ from a hybrid cloud?
What types of organizations typically use community clouds?
Which of the following internal data-cable types is most commonly used to attach 3.5-inch and 2.5-inch hard disk drives to a desktop PC motherboard?
NVMe (M.2) interface
Serial ATA (SATA)
Serial Attached SCSI (SAS)
Parallel ATA (PATA/IDE)
Answer Description
Serial ATA (SATA) uses a narrow 7-conductor data cable inside the computer case to link hard drives to the motherboard. Parallel ATA (PATA/IDE) ribbon cables were common in older systems, Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) is typically found in servers and workstations, and NVMe M.2 drives plug directly into a slot rather than using a separate data cable.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is SATA, and how does it work?
What are the advantages of using SATA over other connection types?
What are the different versions of SATA, and what are their speeds?
You just got off work and decide to relax with some video games when suddenly your PC won't boot. When you power it on, you see the message "No OS found on bootable disks." Which of the following actions is the MOST likely to resolve the problem?
Run
diskpart
to extend the boot partitionReboot the computer and see if the error disappears
Repair the MBR
Run
chkdsk
to scan the file system
Answer Description
Because this is an existing system and the operating system files themselves are probably still present, the most common cause of the message is a damaged boot record or partition table. Rebuilding the Master Boot Record (MBR)-or the corresponding boot data on a GUID Partition Table (GPT) disk-restores the information that the firmware uses to locate and start the OS boot loader. Rebooting rarely fixes a corrupted boot sector, resizing partitions with diskpart will not repair boot code, and chkdsk targets file-system errors rather than boot-sector corruption.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the Master Boot Record (MBR)?
What is a Globally Unique ID Partition Table (GPT)?
How can I repair the MBR?
While upgrading a graphics workstation, a technician notes that the motherboard includes one full-length PCI Express ×16 slot intended for high-bandwidth expansion cards. To obtain the best graphics performance and ensure compatibility, which type of add-in card should the technician install in that slot?
A PCIe ×1 capture card
A standard PCI graphics card
An AGP 8× graphics card
A dedicated PCIe ×16 graphics card
Answer Description
High-end GPUs are designed for the PCI Express ×16 interface. A PCIe ×16 graphics card can use all 16 lanes provided by the slot, delivering far more bandwidth than legacy PCI or AGP cards and far more than a PCIe ×1 device. Installing any other card type in this slot would either fail (AGP, which is physically different), operate at lower bandwidth (PCI, PCIe ×1), or fail to provide GPU functionality.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is PCI Express X16 and why is it important for graphics cards?
What advantages does a high-speed video card provide for gaming?
How does the motherboard slot type affect the choice of a graphics card?
When using a cloud-based file-synchronization service (such as OneDrive, Dropbox, or Google Drive), which of the following conditions must be met for edits made to a document on one device to be reflected on a second device immediately?
Only the device where the edit is made requires Internet access; the other device will update automatically even if offline.
The devices must be connected to the same Bluetooth personal-area network (PAN); an Internet connection is optional.
Both devices must have an active Internet connection so the service can synchronize through the provider's servers.
Both devices only need to be powered on; no network connection is required once the service is configured.
Answer Description
Cloud-based file-synchronization clients cache edits made while offline but cannot propagate those changes to other devices until they can reach the provider's servers. Therefore, both devices need active Internet connectivity for real-time synchronization. Local power state, Bluetooth connectivity, or one-sided connectivity alone will not allow the second device to receive the update until it, too, is online.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a cloud-based file synchronization service?
Why is an internet connection necessary for file synchronization?
What happens to files if you modify them while offline?
A company IT security policy mandates multifactor authentication to access corporate email on mobile devices. An employee who has just been issued a new company phone must configure this access. The phone is already set up to receive a one-time SMS code during sign-in. Which of the following would be the BEST option to satisfy the policy's requirement for a second, distinct authentication factor?
Configure a biometric scan, such as fingerprint or facial recognition, to be required upon accessing the corporate email application.
Instruct the employee to set a complex passcode that must be entered to unlock the device before accessing the email application.
Set up a secure folder within the device where corporate emails can be stored separately from personal data.
Add multiple email addresses as a recovery option for the corporate email account.
Answer Description
A biometric scan (fingerprint or facial recognition) is an inherence factor-"something the user is"-and therefore different from the SMS one-time code, which is a possession factor-"something the user has". Using two different categories of factors provides true MFA and, in most environments, biometrics are considered stronger and more phishing-resistant than a knowledge factor such as a passcode.
While a complex device passcode is also a valid knowledge factor, it does not offer the same level of resistance to phishing or shoulder-surfing attacks as biometrics. Placing email in a secure folder does not add an authentication factor, and adding recovery email addresses is an account-recovery step, not authentication.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the different types of multifactor authentication methods?
Why is biometric authentication considered strong?
How does two-factor authentication enhance security compared to just using a password?
A client has requested an enhancement of their video-rendering workstation. After confirming compatibility with the existing motherboard and CPU, you decide to upgrade the memory. The system needs the highest available bandwidth and improved power efficiency to handle demanding rendering workloads. According to current industry standards, which type of memory module should you install to maximize performance?
Double Data Rate 4 (DDR4) modules
Double Data Rate 5 (DDR5) modules
Add additional Double Data Rate 3 (DDR3) modules
Adjust the system's paging file size
Answer Description
Installing DDR5 (Double Data Rate 5) memory delivers the largest step-up in bandwidth over previous generations-starting at 4800 MT/s versus DDR4's 3200 MT/s-and operates at a lower voltage (≈1.1 V vs. 1.2 V). These changes provide noticeably higher throughput and better power efficiency for processor-intensive tasks like video rendering. Adding more DDR3 or DDR4 modules would not reach comparable performance, and adjusting the paging file is a software change that cannot match the benefits of faster physical RAM.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the differences between DDR3, DDR4, and DDR5 memory modules?
How does memory bandwidth affect video rendering performance?
What should I consider when upgrading memory for a workstation?
You would like to be able to monitor the traffic on your local network. Which tool would allow you to do this?
Network tap
Toner probe
Loopback plug
Cable tester
Answer Description
A network tap is a hardware device that allows for the non-intrusive monitoring of network traffic. It is used to capture and analyze the data flowing through a network segment without disrupting the network's normal operation. Network taps are commonly employed for various purposes, including network troubleshooting, security monitoring, and performance analysis. A loopback plug tests a device's network port, a cable tester verifies the physical integrity of a cable, and a toner probe is used to trace a specific cable within a bundle.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What exactly is a network tap and how does it work?
What are some common uses for network taps?
How does a network tap differ from other tools like a loopback plug or cable tester?
A company's workstation is failing to load the operating system, displaying the message 'Bootable device not found' during startup. This machine uses a mirrored set of two hard drives for redundancy purposes. On inspection, both drives are showing error LEDs. What is the best first step to take in resolving this issue?
Format the drives to clear any corrupt partitions that may be preventing boot.
Inspect and ensure that all data and power connections to the hard drives are secure.
Swap the current cables for new ones without inspecting the existing setup to determine if the cables are indeed the problem.
Run a software utility to check the integrity of the drives and attempt to recover lost sectors.
Answer Description
In any case wherein a system can't find the bootable device, especially when dealing with a mirrored set of drives purposed for redundancy, checking the physical connections is a fast and straightforward initial diagnosis to see if the error is related to simple issues such as loose cables. This step may quickly solve the problem since if the system can't properly communicate with the storage devices, it will not be able to boot or recognize either of them.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a mirrored set of hard drives?
Why is checking cables an important first step when troubleshooting a boot issue?
What happens if the hard drives are still unresponsive after checking connections?
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