CompTIA A+ Practice Test (220-1201)
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CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (V15) Information
CompTIA A+ Certification Overview
Exam Versions
The current versions of the CompTIA A+ certification exams are:
- 220-1201 (Core 1)
- 220-1202 (Core 2)
These versions were launched in March 2025 and are expected to retire approximately three years from their release date.
The A+ Certification Test
To earn the CompTIA A+ certification, candidates must pass two separate exams: 220-1201 and 220-1202. Each exam has a separate fee and can be taken in any order. Both exams must be completed before the retirement date and must be from the same set of objectives. The certification is valid for three years from the date of passing the exams.
Exam Details:
- Format: Computer-based tests
- Number of Questions: 90 questions per exam
- Time Limit: 90 minutes per exam
- Result Availability: Immediately after completion, following a short mandatory survey
CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Practice Test
The CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (Core 1) exam is a key component of the A+ certification, designed to validate essential IT skills and knowledge. This exam, launched in April 2022, covers a broad range of topics critical for IT professionals, including mobile devices, networking technology, hardware, virtualization and cloud computing, and network troubleshooting. Comprising 90 questions, the test includes multiple-choice and performance-based questions, simulating real-world scenarios to assess the candidate's practical abilities. The 220-1201 exam emphasizes the foundational skills necessary for IT support roles, ensuring that certified individuals are equipped to handle a variety of technical issues. With a 90-minute time limit, the exam challenges candidates to demonstrate their proficiency efficiently, providing immediate results upon completion. The certification remains valid for three years, making it a crucial step for those aiming to establish or advance their careers in IT.
Exam Policies and Procedures
Candidates must agree to CompTIA's exam policies before starting the test. These policies include:
- No Mobile Phones/Devices: Must be left outside the exam room
- Question Review: Candidates can revisit and change answers before submitting the exam
- Submission: Unanswered questions are marked, and a final review is available before submission
Testing Centers
Since July 9, 2012, CompTIA exams are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers. Candidates can book exams online, by phone, or at the testing center. Options include:
- In-Person Testing: At Pearson VUE testing centers
- Online Testing: Through Pearson VUE's online platform
Performance-Based Questions (PBQs)
The A+ exams include Performance-Based Questions (PBQs), which require candidates to perform specific tasks or solve problems in a simulated environment. These questions test real-world skills in areas like command prompts, Windows OS, and networking environments.
Continuing Education (CE) Program
Certifications with the +CE (Continuing Education) suffix, including A+, Network+, and Security+, must be renewed every three years. Renewal options include:
- Retaking the Exam: Passing the latest version of the exam
- Higher-Level Certification: Passing a higher-level CompTIA exam
- CE Program Requirements: Completing CE activities
Lifetime Certifications
Certifications earned on or before December 31, 2010, are valid for life. However, lifetime certifications are no longer available for new candidates.
More reading:

Free CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (V15) Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited time
- Mobile DevicesNetworkingHardwareVirtualization and Cloud ComputingHardware and Network Troubleshooting
A field technician frequently presents training videos on a company-issued tablet that charges through its only USB-C port. Meeting rooms often lack Wi-Fi, and the tablet's built-in speakers are too quiet. The technician wants a portable external speaker that can play audio while the tablet remains on AC power. Which connectivity option BEST satisfies these requirements?
Connect a USB-C powered speaker to the tablet's port
Use a battery-powered Bluetooth speaker and pair it with the tablet
Plug in a 3.5 mm wired speaker using the tablet's audio jack
Tap an NFC-enabled speaker against the tablet to stream audio
Answer Description
A Bluetooth speaker pairs wirelessly with the tablet using short-range radio, so the speaker can operate without occupying the USB-C charging port. Because Bluetooth is a peer-to-peer technology, it does not depend on Wi-Fi availability. USB-C speakers would block the charging port, NFC does not support continuous high-quality audio streaming, and a 3.5 mm wired speaker requires a headphone jack that many modern tablets no longer provide and still adds a physical cable that limits mobility.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is Bluetooth considered the best option for this scenario?
Why wouldn’t NFC-enabled speakers be a good choice?
What are the limitations of using USB-C powered speakers in this case?
You have been tasked by the network team to assign a server a new static IP address. When you try to apply the IP 172.256.1.15 with a subnet mask of 255.0.0.0, the system returns an error. What is causing the error?
There is not enough information provided to determine the problem.
172.x.x.x is a Class B address but the subnet mask is the default for Class A.
The IP address is invalid.
The DHCP server is not assigning an IP address, so the computer generated an APIPA address.
Answer Description
In IPv4 each octet is 8 bits, so its decimal value must be between 0 and 255. Because the second octet in 172.256.1.15 is 256, the address is syntactically invalid and the operating system rejects it. APIPA addresses (169.254.x.x) are unrelated because you are manually configuring a static IP. Likewise, DHCP plays no role in this manual assignment, and there is no requirement that a Class B network (172.x.x.x) use its historical default subnet mask (255.255.0.0); using a Class A mask with a Class B address is legal but uncommon. Therefore, the only real problem is the invalid octet value.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why must each IPv4 octet value be between 0 and 255?
What happens if an invalid IP address is entered during static configuration?
Can a Class B IP address use a Class A subnet mask?
A junior technician can log in to a legacy network switch from her workstation by typing telnet 192.168.5.10 at the command prompt. Because this traffic is sent in clear text, the security team wants to block only this specific remote-access service at the perimeter firewall while allowing all other services to remain available. Which TCP port must be denied to accomplish this task?
TCP 3389
TCP 22
TCP 23
UDP 53
Answer Description
Telnet provides remote command-line access but transmits all data, including credentials, in plain text. Telnet sessions use TCP port 23. Blocking inbound and outbound traffic on TCP 23 prevents new Telnet connections to devices on the network without affecting services that rely on other ports, such as SSH (TCP 22), DNS (UDP 53), or Remote Desktop Protocol (TCP 3389).
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is Telnet considered insecure?
How does TCP port 23 differ from TCP port 22?
What is the difference between TCP and UDP in context with ports?
You just got off work and decide to relax with some video games when suddenly your PC won't boot. When you power it on, you see the message "No OS found on bootable disks." Which of the following actions is the MOST likely to resolve the problem?
Reboot the computer and see if the error disappears
Repair the MBR
Run
diskpartto extend the boot partitionRun
chkdskto scan the file system
Answer Description
Because this is an existing system and the operating system files themselves are probably still present, the most common cause of the message is a damaged boot record or partition table. Rebuilding the Master Boot Record (MBR)-or the corresponding boot data on a GUID Partition Table (GPT) disk-restores the information that the firmware uses to locate and start the OS boot loader. Rebooting rarely fixes a corrupted boot sector, resizing partitions with diskpart will not repair boot code, and chkdsk targets file-system errors rather than boot-sector corruption.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the Master Boot Record (MBR)?
What is the difference between MBR and GPT?
How do you repair a damaged MBR?
An office environment requires hard disk drives with a primary focus on energy efficiency and quiet operation over performance for their standard workstation computers. Which of the following hard drive RPM specifications would BEST meet this requirement?
A hard drive with a rotation speed of 7,200rpm
A hard drive with a rotation speed of 10,000rpm
A hard drive with a rotation speed of 15,000rpm
A hard drive with a rotation speed of 5,400rpm
Answer Description
A hard drive with a 5,400rpm specification is typically more energy-efficient and operates quieter compared to higher RPM drives, making it suitable for an office environment where energy conservation and noise reduction are prioritized over the higher performance of faster drives.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why are 5,400rpm drives more energy-efficient compared to higher RPM drives?
What are the trade-offs of using a 5,400rpm hard drive compared to a 7,200rpm or faster drive?
How does hard drive rotational speed impact noise levels in an office environment?
In a typical small office/home office (SOHO) network, which service running on the router automatically assigns IP addresses, subnet masks, default gateways, and other network information to client devices so they can reach the internet without manual configuration?
NAT (Network Address Translation)
APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing)
DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)
Static addressing
Answer Description
The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a client-server protocol built into most SOHO routers. When a device joins the network, the DHCP server on the router leases an IP address along with the subnet mask, default gateway, and often DNS server information. This dynamic process eliminates the need for administrators or users to configure these settings manually and allows devices to join or leave the network seamlessly.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
How does DHCP differ from static addressing?
What happens if a network device cannot reach a DHCP server?
What information does a DHCP server provide to client devices?
A company's IT department is receiving an increasing number of reports from employees that the biometric fingerprint scanners on their company-issued laptops are failing to correctly authenticate them, even though their fingerprints were properly enrolled. What is the FIRST action the IT department should advise users to take to troubleshoot this issue?
Update the biometric device drivers to the latest version.
Re-enroll the fingerprints of the affected users.
Replace the biometric sensor hardware.
Clean the fingerprint reader to ensure it is free from dirt and oils.
Answer Description
The first and most common action to address a biometric sensor issue is to ensure the sensor is clean, as oils, dirt, and dust from fingers can cause the scanner to fail to recognize a fingerprint. Updating the biometric device drivers or re-enrolling the fingerprints are valid subsequent steps if cleaning the sensor does not resolve the issue, but they are not the initial action to take.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why does dirt and oil affect fingerprint scanners?
How should users properly clean a fingerprint scanner?
When should users consider updating biometric device drivers or re-enrolling fingerprints?
A system builder is assembling a high-performance workstation for graphic design and 3D modeling tasks. The workstation will utilize multiple graphics cards and requires several expansion slots for additional peripherals. Given the need for expandability and a larger number of expansion slots, which of the following motherboard form factors should the system builder select?
Mini-ITX
microATX
ATX
Nano-ITX
Answer Description
The ATX form factor is suitable for workstations that require high performance and expandability. ATX motherboards offer more expansion slots for multiple graphics cards and peripherals which is important for graphic design and 3D modeling tasks. Additionally, the larger ATX size allows for better airflow, which is ideal for systems that may generate more heat due to the high-performance components involved. The microATX is smaller than ATX with fewer expansion slots, not optimal when many are required. Mini-ITX is much smaller than both ATX and microATX, usually with only one expansion slot, which would not fulfill the requirement for multiple graphics cards. E-ATX (Extended ATX) is a valid option for even more room and expandability, but it's not listed among the choices provided.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is the ATX form factor better suited for high-performance workstations?
What are some differences between ATX and microATX form factors?
What are expansion slots, and why are they important for workstations?
A technician is servicing an older desktop computer that contains a PATA hard drive and a CD-ROM drive. Which connector from the power supply unit (PSU) is typically used to power these types of drives?
Molex
DB-9
USB-C
USB 3.0
Answer Description
The 4-pin Molex connector was the standard for providing power to internal PATA (IDE) hard drives and optical drives. It delivers both +5V and +12V DC. While newer storage devices use the 15-pin SATA power connector, Molex connectors are still found on older power supplies and are sometimes used for other devices like case fans. USB-C and USB 3.0 are used for external peripherals, and the DB-9 connector is a legacy serial port used for data transfer, not internal power.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why are Molex connectors still used even though SATA power connectors are more common now?
What are the differences between a Molex connector and a SATA power connector?
What is the DB-9 connector and why is it not suitable for power delivery?
A customer brings in a high-end smartphone complaining that the screen displays true blacks very well but mentions that the screen seems to be deteriorating; parts of the display have a noticeable color shift, especially where static images are common. Considering the symptoms, what is the most likely cause of this issue?
The display is experiencing burn-in due to static images.
Image persistence is causing temporary ghosting of images.
The screen has dead pixels that need to be replaced.
The device is suffering from backlight bleed due to improper shielding of the light source.
Answer Description
This issue is characteristic of burn-in, which is a common problem with OLED displays. It occurs when there is prolonged exposure to static images, causing some pixels to degrade more quickly than others, leading to uneven wear and a noticeable persistence of images or discoloration on the screen. Backlight bleed is associated with LCD panels, not OLED. Dead pixels would display as black spots on the display and wouldn't be affected by static images. Image persistence is a temporary issue often seen in LCD displays and differs from burn-in as it can usually be resolved by allowing the screen to display a moving image for some time.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is OLED and how does it work?
How is burn-in different from image persistence?
Why doesn’t burn-in happen on LCD displays?
An employee needs to ensure that their work-related emails, calendars, and contacts are synchronized between Microsoft 365 and their Android smartphone. Which one of the following actions is the BEST approach to achieve this synchronization while ensuring it aligns with typical corporate security policies?
Use a third-party mail application that supports IMAP and SMTP protocols to add the Microsoft 365 account.
Configure only the incoming mail server using IMAP to synchronize the emails with the smartphone.
Install and configure the Outlook for Android app to connect to the Microsoft 365 account.
Manually set up the account using Exchange ActiveSync protocols through the phone's built-in email client.
Answer Description
By using Microsoft's Outlook app, the synchronization process with Microsoft 365 is done securely and efficiently, as it is designed to work seamlessly with Microsoft's email, calendar, and contact services, and often aligns with corporate security policies that may include remote management features and encryption. A third-party mail app may not always adhere to the corporate security policies, as it could lack certain security features or data handling protocols. Enabling only IMAP would synchronize emails only and not calendar or contact data. Lastly, manual setup using Exchange protocols could work but isn't recommended over the Outlook app, as it is more complex and error-prone.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What makes the Outlook for Android app more secure for Microsoft 365 synchronization?
Why wouldn't using a third-party app supporting IMAP and SMTP be a good alternative?
How does Exchange ActiveSync differ from using the Outlook for Android app?
A development team is building a microservice-based application and needs each microservice to run in an isolated environment that shares the host operating system kernel but includes all the libraries and dependencies the service requires. The solution must start quickly and run identically on a developer's laptop, the company's on-premises test server, and a public-cloud VM. Which of the following virtualization technologies BEST meets these requirements?
Type 2 (hosted) hypervisor
Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI)
Type 1 (bare-metal) hypervisor
Containers
Answer Description
Containers provide process-level isolation by packaging an application with its dependencies while sharing the host's OS kernel. This makes them lightweight, portable across environments, and extremely fast to start-ideal for microservices.
- Type 1 and Type 2 hypervisors run full guest operating systems, adding more overhead than necessary for this scenario.
- Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) delivers entire desktop sessions to users and is not designed for packaging individual microservices.
Therefore, containers are the best fit.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Can you explain what a container is in this context?
How do containers differ from traditional virtual machines (VMs)?
Why are containers a better fit for microservices than hypervisors or VMs?
Which of the following cloud-computing advantages BEST matches the description "the ability to scale up or down automatically based on demand and resource usage"?
Measured service
Resource pooling
Broad network access
Rapid elasticity
Answer Description
Rapid elasticity is an essential cloud characteristic. It allows a provider to automatically add or remove resources so the customer scales outward and inward with changes in demand, avoiding over-provisioning during normal workloads and adding capacity during peaks. Resource pooling, measured service, and broad network access are also important cloud characteristics, but they do not specifically describe on-demand scaling.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does rapid elasticity mean in cloud computing?
How does rapid elasticity differ from resource pooling?
Why is rapid elasticity an important feature for businesses?
A company requires external hosting of its applications, capacity that scales with demand, and a pay-as-you-go billing model. Which cloud service model would meet these needs while also being managed by a third-party service provider over the internet?
Public cloud
Hybrid cloud
Community cloud
Private cloud
Answer Description
The public cloud meets the criteria given as it is hosted offsite by a service provider and offers scalable infrastructure and services over the internet with a pay-as-you-go billing model. Private cloud environments are generally hosted on-premises and managed internally, not typically offering pay-as-you-go pricing. Hybrid cloud combines on-premises private cloud and third-party public cloud services but is not exclusively managed over the internet by a third-party provider. Community cloud is a collaborative effort where the cloud infrastructure is shared between several organizations from a specific group with common computing concerns.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What distinguishes a public cloud from other cloud models like private or hybrid clouds?
How does the pay-as-you-go billing model benefit organizations using a public cloud?
What types of workloads or applications are best suited for the public cloud?
When planning an on-premises VDI deployment for about 200 office workers, which factor is typically the first sizing constraint that determines how many virtual desktops a single host or cluster can support?
Storage I/O performance (IOPS and latency)
Licensing cost
Internet egress bandwidth
Multifactor authentication policies
Answer Description
Storage I/O performance (measured in available IOPS and latency) is usually the primary bottleneck in an on-premises VDI environment. During boot, logon, antivirus scans and other "I/O storms," hundreds of desktops can generate intense, bursty disk traffic. If the shared storage array cannot deliver enough IOPS with low latency, desktops will feel sluggish no matter how much CPU, RAM or network capacity is available. Adequate LAN bandwidth and strong security are important, but they rarely limit user experience in a local deployment before storage throughput does.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are IOPS and how do they affect VDI performance?
Why is storage latency important for virtual desktops?
What is the difference between local storage and shared storage for VDI?
A technician is assembling a new computer. They have an ATX power supply and a motherboard which they need to connect. The tech notices that the motherboard has a 24-pin connector. What type of power connector from the power supply should the technician use to ensure compatibility with this motherboard?
EPS12V power connector
8-pin PCIe power connector
24-pin motherboard power connector
20-pin motherboard power connector
Answer Description
The correct power connector to use in this scenario is the 24-pin motherboard power connector, which matches the 24-pin connector on the motherboard, ensuring proper fit and power distribution to the motherboard. A 20-pin connector cannot deliver the additional power required by ATX boards that use 24-pin configurations. While the others are also power connectors, EPS12V is used specifically for CPUs and lacks the correct pin count for the main motherboard power connection, and PCIe power connectors are meant for providing extra power directly to PCIe add-on cards, such as advanced video cards.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is an ATX power supply?
What is the purpose of a 24-pin connector?
How does the 24-pin connector differ from EPS12V and PCIe power connectors?
Which of the following device types would have a feature for permitting or blocking TCP and UDP traffic on a particular port?
WAP
Firewall
Switch
Hub
Answer Description
A firewall is a device that can be configured to permit or block traffic to help secure a computer network.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the difference between TCP and UDP?
How does a firewall block or permit traffic on specific ports?
What distinguishes a firewall from other networking devices like switches or WAPs?
A help-desk technician must allow a group of Windows 11 laptops to run a decade-old inventory program that only supports Windows 7. Management does not want users to see or manage an entire guest OS, and overhead must remain minimal. The program should appear in the local Start menu yet run in its own isolated layer. Which virtualization approach BEST meets these requirements?
Create a dedicated Windows 7 virtual machine for each user and have them launch the software inside the guest OS.
Publish a full Windows desktop to the users through a VDI pool hosted in the company datacenter.
Package the program with an application-virtualization platform so it streams and executes in an isolated runtime on each laptop.
Build a Docker container that hosts the application and provide access through a web browser.
Answer Description
Application virtualization packages the program and any required registry or DLL files into an isolated runtime that is streamed to each workstation. The application launches from the host's Start menu and interacts with the user as if it were locally installed, but it remains separated from the underlying operating system, avoiding compatibility conflicts and keeping resource use low. Deploying a full Windows 7 virtual machine would satisfy compatibility but forces users to manage an entire guest OS and consumes far more CPU, RAM, and storage. A VDI pool likewise delivers a whole desktop session, exceeding the stated need and adding data-center dependencies. A Docker container is designed for Linux-based workloads and would still require a presentation layer for Windows applications, making it a poor fit in this context.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is application virtualization?
How does application virtualization differ from a full virtual machine?
Why are Docker containers not suitable for running Windows applications?
A technician is troubleshooting a laptop’s built-in microphone that is creating a lot of noise in recorded audio. The latest drivers are installed, and the microphone is set as the default recording device. Which of the following actions will BEST alleviate the issue while maintaining audio clarity?
Disable all other input devices through the audio settings.
Adjust advanced equalizer settings to filter frequencies that are contributing to noise.
Update the laptop’s operating system to the latest version.
Enable noise cancellation or suppression features in the sound settings.
Answer Description
Enabling noise cancellation or suppression features in the sound settings can help reduce background noise during audio capture without affecting the clarity of the primary audio source, which in most cases would be the user's voice. Updating the operating system or disabling other devices would not directly address the issue of noise in the audio capture. Playing with advanced equalizer settings may help to some extent but is not the most effective method to deal with noise issues compared to using built-in noise reduction features.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is noise cancellation or suppression in audio settings?
What are examples of scenarios where noise suppression is most useful?
How do you enable noise cancellation in most operating systems?
In a server that requires high availability, multiple power supplies might be used. What is the primary reason for employing this configuration?
Having more than one power supply enables the server to draw power from two separate phases of AC power for load balancing
The additional power supplies deploy more fans, enhancing thermal management through superior airflow
The additional power supplies are intended to supply power to more peripherals and expansion cards added to the server
Multiple power supplies allow for failover if a power supply unit fails, mitigating the risk of system downtime
Answer Description
A redundant power supply system in a high-availability server environment is primarily designed to provide a failover option in the event of a power supply unit (PSU) failure. This ensures that the server continues to operate, significantly reducing downtime. Other advantages like improved efficiency or increased power output can be misinterpreted as primary benefits but they are secondary to the need for redundancy, which focuses mainly on maintaining uptime in response to PSU failures.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is redundancy essential in high-availability servers?
How do redundant power supplies switch over during a failure?
What are some other components that support server high availability besides redundant PSUs?
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