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CompTIA A+ Practice Test (220-1102)

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CompTIA A+ 220-1102 (V14) Information

CompTIA A+ Certification Overview

Exam Versions

The current versions of the CompTIA A+ certification exams are:

  • 220-1101 (Core 1)
  • 220-1102 (Core 2)

These versions were launched in April 2022 and are expected to retire approximately three years from their release date.

The A+ Certification Test

To earn the CompTIA A+ certification, candidates must pass two separate exams: 220-1101 and 220-1102. Each exam has a separate fee and can be taken in any order. Both exams must be completed before the retirement date and must be from the same set of objectives. The certification is valid for three years from the date of passing the exams.

Exam Details:

  • Format: Computer-based tests
  • Number of Questions: 90 questions per exam
  • Time Limit: 90 minutes per exam
  • Result Availability: Immediately after completion, following a short mandatory survey

CompTIA A+ 220-1102

The CompTIA A+ 220-1102 (Core 2) exam is an essential part of the A+ certification, focusing on the software and operational aspects of IT support. Launched in April 2022, this exam tests candidates on a variety of critical topics including operating systems, security, software troubleshooting, and operational procedures. The 220-1102 exam comprises 90 questions, featuring a mix of multiple-choice and performance-based questions that simulate real-world IT scenarios. With a 90-minute time limit, candidates must efficiently demonstrate their knowledge and problem-solving skills. The exam is designed to ensure that IT professionals are well-versed in managing and troubleshooting software issues, implementing security measures, and following best practices in IT operations. Successful completion of the 220-1102, alongside the 220-1101, certifies individuals for three years, highlighting their competence and readiness to handle diverse technical challenges in the IT field.

Exam Policies and Procedures

Candidates must agree to CompTIA's exam policies before starting the test. These policies include:

  • No Mobile Phones/Devices: Must be left outside the exam room
  • Question Review: Candidates can revisit and change answers before submitting the exam
  • Submission: Unanswered questions are marked, and a final review is available before submission

Testing Centers

Since July 9, 2012, CompTIA exams are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers. Candidates can book exams online, by phone, or at the testing center. Options include:

  • In-Person Testing: At Pearson VUE testing centers
  • Online Testing: Through Pearson VUE's online platform

Performance-Based Questions (PBQs)

The A+ exams include Performance-Based Questions (PBQs), which require candidates to perform specific tasks or solve problems in a simulated environment. These questions test real-world skills in areas like command prompts, Windows OS, and networking environments.

Continuing Education (CE) Program

Certifications with the +CE (Continuing Education) suffix, including A+, Network+, and Security+, must be renewed every three years. Renewal options include:

  • Retaking the Exam: Passing the latest version of the exam
  • Higher-Level Certification: Passing a higher-level CompTIA exam
  • CE Program Requirements: Completing CE activities

Lifetime Certifications

Certifications earned on or before December 31, 2010, are valid for life. However, lifetime certifications are no longer available for new candidates.

More reading:

Free CompTIA A+ 220-1102 (V14) Practice Test

Press start when you are ready, or press Change to modify any settings for the practice test.

  • Questions: 15
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    Operating Systems
    Security
    Software Troubleshooting
    Operational Procedures
Question 1 of 15

What is the primary purpose of an asset tag in asset management?

  • To uniquely identify and track equipment

  • To enhance the physical security of a device

  • To encrypt the data stored on the device

  • To ensure the device is compatible with other devices in the network

Question 2 of 15

A small office/home office (SOHO) network administrator needs to secure the wireless network to prevent unauthorized access to internal resources. What is the BEST action to take to achieve this?

  • Disable Universal Plug and Play (UPnP) on the router.

  • Enable WiFi Protected Access 3 (WPA3) encryption.

  • Limit the wireless access by filtering the MAC addresses.

  • Change the default service set identifier (SSID) and disable SSID broadcast.

Question 3 of 15

An employee at a design firm uses an iPad for creating visual content while traveling. They've reported that they cannot install a particular application despite having sufficient storage space. The application is known to be compatible with the latest version of iPadOS. What should you check next to resolve this issue?

  • Verify that the device's screen size is compatible with the application.

  • Check the Screen Time settings for any restrictions on app installations.

  • Check if the Wi-Fi signal is strong enough to download applications.

  • Ensure that the device is set to the correct date and time.

Question 4 of 15

In Windows 10 Pro, which statement correctly differentiates BitLocker from the Encrypting File System (EFS)?

  • BitLocker encrypts entire volumes, while EFS encrypts individual files and folders.

  • BitLocker relies on the NTFS file system, while EFS works on FAT32 and exFAT volumes.

  • EFS requires a TPM chip, whereas BitLocker does not.

  • BitLocker is available only in Windows Home, whereas EFS is available only in Windows Pro and Enterprise.

Question 5 of 15

Which Windows utility lets you revert system files, installed applications, the registry, and other system settings to a previously created restore point-without affecting personal user documents?

  • Computer Management

  • Windows Easy Transfer

  • Task Manager

  • System Restore

Question 6 of 15

What technology can be used to reduce the amount of phishing emails received by your companies end users?

  • Antivirus

  • Port Firewall

  • Spam Filter

  • Antimalware

Question 7 of 15

What is the primary purpose of video surveillance in a security context?

  • To monitor and record activities

  • To provide biometric authentication

  • To control access to restricted areas

  • To detect unauthorized network access

Question 8 of 15

A user reports that they are seeing numerous pop-ups and fake alerts about viruses on their device.

What should you inform them to do first in order to protect their system?

  • Turn off any antivirus software.

  • Do not interact with the pop-ups.

  • Reset the device to factory settings.

Question 9 of 15

Which feature allows an administrator to edit policies that control user settings and system behaviors at a granular level?

  • Registry Editor (regedit.exe)

  • Device Manager (devmgmt.msc)

  • Group Policy Editor (gpedit.msc)

  • Task Scheduler (taskschd.msc)

Question 10 of 15

An employee within a company wishes to use a software package for creating diagrams and flowcharts, which he has personally purchased for home use. The company's IT policy requires software to be properly licensed for corporate use. What is the BEST course of action to remain compliant with licensing regulations?

  • Install the software on multiple office computers until the company decides to purchase bulk licenses.

  • Ask the employee only to use the software after hours to avoid interference with corporate policy.

  • Obtain a corporate use license for the software to be used within the company.

  • Use the employee's personal license at the office, since it is already paid for.

Question 11 of 15

What Windows command is used for disk partitioning and volume management tasks in the command-line interface?

Question 12 of 15

Which term refers to a logically separate portion of a single physical hard drive?

  • Virtual Volume

  • Stateful Drive

  • Partition

  • Virtual Drive

Question 13 of 15

A technician is trying to setup a non-domain user account on a workstation, but receives the following error message "Password does not meet the complexity requirements." Which of the following utilities should the technician use to identify the criteria?

  • Performance Monitor

  • Local Security Policy

  • MSCONFIG

  • Users and Groups

Question 14 of 15

A technician is troubleshooting a Windows PC that displays frequent notifications stating the firewall has been disabled. The user confirms they did not make any changes to the security settings. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for these alerts?

  • A conflicting third-party security application

  • User profile corruption

  • Malware infection

  • A recent OS update failed

Question 15 of 15

A network administrator is tasked with managing user accounts on a Windows machine.

They need to determine the details of a user named 'JohnDoe'. Which command should they use?

  • whoami JohnDoe

  • net user JohnDoe

  • net accounts JohnDoe

  • netstat JohnDoe