CompTIA A+ Practice Test (220-1102)
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CompTIA A+ 220-1102 (V14) Information
CompTIA A+ Certification Overview
Exam Versions
The current versions of the CompTIA A+ certification exams are:
- 220-1101 (Core 1)
- 220-1102 (Core 2)
These versions were launched in April 2022 and are expected to retire approximately three years from their release date.
The A+ Certification Test
To earn the CompTIA A+ certification, candidates must pass two separate exams: 220-1101 and 220-1102. Each exam has a separate fee and can be taken in any order. Both exams must be completed before the retirement date and must be from the same set of objectives. The certification is valid for three years from the date of passing the exams.
Exam Details:
- Format: Computer-based tests
- Number of Questions: 90 questions per exam
- Time Limit: 90 minutes per exam
- Result Availability: Immediately after completion, following a short mandatory survey
CompTIA A+ 220-1102
The CompTIA A+ 220-1102 (Core 2) exam is an essential part of the A+ certification, focusing on the software and operational aspects of IT support. Launched in April 2022, this exam tests candidates on a variety of critical topics including operating systems, security, software troubleshooting, and operational procedures. The 220-1102 exam comprises 90 questions, featuring a mix of multiple-choice and performance-based questions that simulate real-world IT scenarios. With a 90-minute time limit, candidates must efficiently demonstrate their knowledge and problem-solving skills. The exam is designed to ensure that IT professionals are well-versed in managing and troubleshooting software issues, implementing security measures, and following best practices in IT operations. Successful completion of the 220-1102, alongside the 220-1101, certifies individuals for three years, highlighting their competence and readiness to handle diverse technical challenges in the IT field.
Exam Policies and Procedures
Candidates must agree to CompTIA's exam policies before starting the test. These policies include:
- No Mobile Phones/Devices: Must be left outside the exam room
- Question Review: Candidates can revisit and change answers before submitting the exam
- Submission: Unanswered questions are marked, and a final review is available before submission
Testing Centers
Since July 9, 2012, CompTIA exams are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers. Candidates can book exams online, by phone, or at the testing center. Options include:
- In-Person Testing: At Pearson VUE testing centers
- Online Testing: Through Pearson VUE's online platform
Performance-Based Questions (PBQs)
The A+ exams include Performance-Based Questions (PBQs), which require candidates to perform specific tasks or solve problems in a simulated environment. These questions test real-world skills in areas like command prompts, Windows OS, and networking environments.
Continuing Education (CE) Program
Certifications with the +CE (Continuing Education) suffix, including A+, Network+, and Security+, must be renewed every three years. Renewal options include:
- Retaking the Exam: Passing the latest version of the exam
- Higher-Level Certification: Passing a higher-level CompTIA exam
- CE Program Requirements: Completing CE activities
Lifetime Certifications
Certifications earned on or before December 31, 2010, are valid for life. However, lifetime certifications are no longer available for new candidates.
More reading:
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Free CompTIA A+ 220-1102 (V14) Practice Test
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- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:Operating SystemsSecuritySoftware TroubleshootingOperational Procedures
Your client's workstation is experiencing frequent and unexplained reboots. After verifying there is no overheating and ensuring all hardware components are properly seated, which of the following Windows tools should you use first to further troubleshoot the system instability?
Run the Disk Defragmenter to optimize file placement on hard drives.
Perform a System Restore to revert the computer to an earlier state.
Set up counters in Performance Monitor to track system performance.
Use the Reliability Monitor to review system stability history.
Answer Description
The Reliability Monitor is a Windows utility that provides a timeline of system events and reliability history, including hardware and software failures, warnings, and informational events. It is especially useful in diagnosing intermittent problems such as unexplained reboots, and might provide insight into the cause of the instability. A Disk Defragmenter is not typically related to system reboots, System Restore would revert the system to a previous point which could remove recent updates or changes that are causing issues, but it's not a diagnostic tool. The Performance Monitor is a more advanced tool for system performance analysis and wouldn't necessarily provide clear insights on sudden reboots.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What exactly does the Reliability Monitor show?
How do I access the Reliability Monitor in Windows?
What other Windows tools can help diagnose system stability issues?
What Active Directory feature can be used to apply default user account permissions?
Least Privilege
Login scripts
Group Policy
None of these options
Answer Description
In Microsoft Active Directory a Group Policy is a policy applied to many AD objects. Objects can be user accounts, servers, desktop devices, etc. Group Policies are used to manage things like user account permissions. For example, a policy may be created for each team with default account permissions needed for those users.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is Group Policy in Active Directory?
How do Group Policies affect user account permissions?
What are some common applications of Group Policy?
What component is essential for ensuring that a system can revert to a previous state after a planned modification?
Rollback plan
Risk analysis
Change request forms
Documentation of the change
Answer Description
A rollback plan is crucial as it allows for restoring a system to its previous state if issues arise after a change. This practice minimizes downtime and ensures continuity of operations.
Other options may address risk or project management but do not specifically ensure a way to revert changes if they do not go as planned.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a rollback plan?
Why is having a rollback plan important for IT systems?
How does documentation of changes relate to a rollback plan?
A technician needs to remotely access and control a user's desktop to troubleshoot an application issue. Which of the following protocols allows for graphical remote control and is platform-independent?
VNC
FTP
SSH
RDP
Answer Description
Virtual Network Computing (VNC) is the correct answer because it is a graphical desktop-sharing system that uses the Remote Frame Buffer (RFB) protocol to remotely control another computer. It's platform-independent, meaning it can work across different operating systems, making it versatile for cross-platform support.
RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) is specific to Windows systems and isn't platform-independent. SSH (Secure Shell) is primarily for command-line access and doesn't provide graphical interface control by default. FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is used for transferring files, not for remote desktop control.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the Remote Frame Buffer (RFB) protocol?
How does VNC compare to RDP for remote desktop connections?
What are some common use cases for VNC in professional environments?
A user is concerned about malware automatically running from a USB flash drive when it is connected to a computer. Which of the following security best practices would BEST mitigate this specific risk?
Setting a BIOS/UEFI password
Enabling a screen lock timeout
Implementing full-disk encryption
Disabling AutoRun
Answer Description
Disabling AutoRun is a security best practice that prevents the operating system from automatically executing commands found in the autorun.inf file on removable media. This directly mitigates the risk of malware launching automatically when a device like a USB flash drive is inserted. While other options are valid security measures, they do not address the specific threat of automatic execution from removable media. A screen lock protects against unauthorized physical access, full-disk encryption protects data at rest, and a BIOS/UEFI password secures the pre-boot environment.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the autorun.inf file?
How does AutoRun relate to malware?
What are some methods to scan removable media for threats?
What is the primary function of Group Policy in a Windows environment?
To configure hardware settings for workstations only
To manage security settings and software installation for users and computers
To enforce password policies for individual user accounts
To control user access to internet downloads
Answer Description
To manage security settings and software installation for users and computers - This is correct. Group Policy is a feature in Windows that allows administrators to centrally manage and configure operating system settings, security configurations, software installations, and user environment settings for both users and computers in an Active Directory domain.
To control user access to internet downloads - While Group Policy can be used to manage internet-related settings, its scope is much broader and includes managing a variety of system and user configurations beyond internet downloads.
To configure hardware settings for workstations only - Group Policy is not limited to hardware settings or workstations. It can configure settings for both users and computers across an entire domain, including policies related to software, security, and more.
To enforce password policies for individual user accounts - While Group Policy can enforce password policies, it does so at a domain or organizational level, not for individual user accounts. Managing individual accounts is handled through other tools like Local Users and Groups or Active Directory Users and Computers.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
How does Group Policy differ from Local Group Policy?
What types of settings can be managed through Group Policy?
Can Group Policy settings be overridden, and how does that work?
Your company is decommissioning several old hard drives that contained sensitive customer data. Which method should you use to ensure that the data cannot be recovered and meets the highest security standards?
Low-level formatting
Erasing/wiping
Degaussing
Standard formatting
Answer Description
Degaussing is the process of erasing data from magnetic storage devices by using a powerful magnetic field. This process makes the data on the storage medium unrecoverable, meeting high security standards. Standard formatting and erasing do not completely eliminate data, and low-level formatting (while effective) is more complex and less practical compared to degaussing.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is degaussing and how does it work?
What are the differences between degaussing and data wiping?
What types of devices are affected by degaussing?
Which placement strategy best enhances the physical security of network switches, routers, and other critical network equipment in a small office or home office environment?
Mount the devices on top of the receptionist's desk for quick troubleshooting access.
Position the equipment near an exterior window to improve wireless signal coverage.
Install all network devices on an open shelf located in the office's common area.
Place the equipment inside a locked wiring closet with access limited to IT staff.
Answer Description
Storing network equipment in a locked wiring closet or server room restricts physical access to authorized personnel only, reducing the risk of tampering, theft, or accidental damage. Placing devices in open or highly visible locations makes unauthorized access easier and therefore weakens security.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are some examples of secure areas for network equipment?
Why is visibility a risk for network equipment?
What are the consequences of poor physical security for network equipment?
A hacker wants to infiltrate a target’s computer to plant malware that allows them undetected privileged access to control the computer. What type of malware would the hacker want to use?
Trojan
A virus
Spyware
Ransomware
A rootkit
Answer Description
The answer is a rootkit. A rootkit allows a hacker to gain privileged access to a target’s computer while being extremely difficult to detect. The other choices are other types of malware that do not allow for control of the infected computer.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What exactly is a rootkit and how does it work?
What is the difference between rootkits and other types of malware?
How can I tell if my computer is infected with a rootkit?
Which method allows for controlling user access to resources based on the minimum necessary permissions?
Password policy enforcement
Access control list (ACL) management
Principle of least privilege
Role-based access control (RBAC)
Answer Description
The principle of least privilege ensures that users have only the permissions they need to complete their tasks, reducing the risk of accidental or intentional misuse of resources.
Other options involve more general access controls, which do not focus on minimizing permissions.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the principle of least privilege?
How is the principle of least privilege implemented in organizations?
What are some risks of not following the principle of least privilege?
Which command is used to duplicate files from one location to another in a Windows environment?
move
dir
mkdir
copy
Answer Description
copy - This is correct. The copy command is used to duplicate files from one location to another in a Windows environment. It creates a copy of the file at the destination while keeping the original file intact.
move - The move command relocates files from one location to another. Unlike copy, it does not leave the original file in the source location.
dir - The dir command lists files and directories in the current or specified folder. It does not duplicate or move files.
mkdir - The mkdir command (short for "make directory") is used to create a new directory. It does not handle file duplication.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the differences between the copy and move commands in Windows?
What is the syntax for using the copy command in Windows?
Can the copy command be used to duplicate directories as well as files?
A technician is setting up a new workstation in an area where high static electricity is a concern. Which of the following is the BEST way to protect the equipment from electrostatic discharge?
Use non-conductive tools while working on the equipment.
Keep the equipment in an area with a high humidity level to prevent static build-up.
Wear a wrist strap without attaching it to a grounded surface.
Store the equipment in antistatic bags when not in use.
Place the equipment on an ESD mat that is grounded.
Answer Description
Grounding the equipment is the most effective way to protect sensitive electronic components from electrostatic discharge (ESD). Using a properly grounded ESD mat provides a path for static electricity to flow safely to ground instead of discharging through the electronic components.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is electrostatic discharge (ESD)?
Why is grounding important for ESD protection?
What are some other methods to prevent electrostatic discharge?
A user is complaining they are getting frequent pop-up windows while browsing the web. You have already verified there is an anti-virus software installed and that no viruses were found. How should you proceed?
Rerun the anti-virus software in safe mode
Reformat the PC
Check installed browser extensions and plugins for the cause of the popups
Reset the user's profile in Active Directory
Answer Description
The two most common ways to inject pop-up windows into a web browsing session is by using a malicious application which will most likely be found by the anti-virus software, or by installing a plugin or extension to the browser that creates the pop-ups. Some free applications downloadable from the internet will install these plugins as a way to create ad revenue.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are browser extensions and how do they work?
How can I check and manage browser extensions?
What should I do if I suspect an extension is causing pop-ups?
A user needs to determine their system’s current IP address settings, including the subnet mask and default gateway.
Which command should the user execute in the command prompt?
ping
tracert
netstat
ipconfig
Answer Description
The correct command for displaying IP configuration details, including the subnet mask and default gateway, is 'ipconfig'. This command provides essential network information for troubleshooting and configuration.
The other options, while related to networking, do not provide the specific details required for this task. For instance, 'ping' tests connectivity to another device but doesn't display IP settings, and 'netstat' shows active connections, which is unrelated to retrieving IP configuration.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does the command 'ipconfig' show?
What are subnet masks, and why are they important?
How can I use the information from 'ipconfig' for troubleshooting?
Of all the various types of tools and methods an organization can use in its efforts to prevent malware, which is the most important?
Firewalls
Anti-malware
User education regarding common threats
Antivirus
Answer Description
The most important tool in preventing malware is user education. Users are the weakest and least controllable link in the security chain. A majority of malware is introduced into a network from the actions of a user.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is user education considered the most important method in preventing malware?
What are some common threats that user education should cover?
How can organizations effectively implement user education programs?
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