CompTIA A+ Practice Test (220-1102)
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CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Information
CompTIA A+ Certification Overview
Exam Versions
The current versions of the CompTIA A+ certification exams are:
- 220-1101 (Core 1)
- 220-1102 (Core 2)
These versions were launched in April 2022 and are expected to retire approximately three years from their release date.
The A+ Certification Test
To earn the CompTIA A+ certification, candidates must pass two separate exams: 220-1101 and 220-1102. Each exam has a separate fee and can be taken in any order. Both exams must be completed before the retirement date and must be from the same set of objectives. The certification is valid for three years from the date of passing the exams.
Exam Details:
- Format: Computer-based tests
- Number of Questions: 90 questions per exam
- Time Limit: 90 minutes per exam
- Result Availability: Immediately after completion, following a short mandatory survey
CompTIA A+ 220-1102
The CompTIA A+ 220-1102 (Core 2) exam is an essential part of the A+ certification, focusing on the software and operational aspects of IT support. Launched in April 2022, this exam tests candidates on a variety of critical topics including operating systems, security, software troubleshooting, and operational procedures. The 220-1102 exam comprises 90 questions, featuring a mix of multiple-choice and performance-based questions that simulate real-world IT scenarios. With a 90-minute time limit, candidates must efficiently demonstrate their knowledge and problem-solving skills. The exam is designed to ensure that IT professionals are well-versed in managing and troubleshooting software issues, implementing security measures, and following best practices in IT operations. Successful completion of the 220-1102, alongside the 220-1101, certifies individuals for three years, highlighting their competence and readiness to handle diverse technical challenges in the IT field.
Exam Policies and Procedures
Candidates must agree to CompTIA's exam policies before starting the test. These policies include:
- No Mobile Phones/Devices: Must be left outside the exam room
- Question Review: Candidates can revisit and change answers before submitting the exam
- Submission: Unanswered questions are marked, and a final review is available before submission
Testing Centers
Since July 9, 2012, CompTIA exams are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers. Candidates can book exams online, by phone, or at the testing center. Options include:
- In-Person Testing: At Pearson VUE testing centers
- Online Testing: Through Pearson VUE's online platform
Performance-Based Questions (PBQs)
The A+ exams include Performance-Based Questions (PBQs), which require candidates to perform specific tasks or solve problems in a simulated environment. These questions test real-world skills in areas like command prompts, Windows OS, and networking environments.
Continuing Education (CE) Program
Certifications with the +CE (Continuing Education) suffix, including A+, Network+, and Security+, must be renewed every three years. Renewal options include:
- Retaking the Exam: Passing the latest version of the exam
- Higher-Level Certification: Passing a higher-level CompTIA exam
- CE Program Requirements: Completing CE activities
Lifetime Certifications
Certifications earned on or before December 31, 2010, are valid for life. However, lifetime certifications are no longer available for new candidates.
More reading:
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Free CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Practice Test
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- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:Operating SystemsSecuritySoftware TroubleshootingOperational Procedures
A technician needs to remotely access and control a user's desktop to troubleshoot an application issue. Which of the following protocols allows for graphical remote control and is platform-independent?
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VNC
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SSH
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FTP
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RDP
Answer Description
Virtual Network Computing (VNC) is the correct answer because it is a graphical desktop-sharing system that uses the Remote Frame Buffer (RFB) protocol to remotely control another computer. It's platform-independent, meaning it can work across different operating systems, making it versatile for cross-platform support.
RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) is specific to Windows systems and isn't platform-independent. SSH (Secure Shell) is primarily for command-line access and doesn't provide graphical interface control by default. FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is used for transferring files, not for remote desktop control.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the Remote Frame Buffer (RFB) protocol?
How does VNC compare to RDP for remote desktop connections?
What are some common use cases for VNC in professional environments?
A user in your office reports that their new laptop will not connect to the WiFi. The user has confirmed that the Wi-Fi icon in the system tray is not visible. Their own laptop is working as expected. As part of your initial troubleshooting steps, what should you do first to restore the connection?
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Move the laptop closer to the wireless access point to improve signal reception.
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Check the wireless adapter status in the Network Connections folder to ensure it is enabled.
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Restart the router to reset the Internet connection for all connected devices.
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Replace the network cable to ensure a wired connection to the laptop could be established.
Answer Description
The correct answer is to check the wireless adapter status in the Network Connections folder to ascertain its current state and ensure it is enabled. If the adapter is disabled, it would cause a loss of connectivity, and re-enabling it may restore the connection. The incorrect options, such as restarting the router or replacing the network cable, are not relevant as the issue is with the laptop's adapter according to the scenario. Checking the proximity to the access point would only be relevant if the laptop was failing to detect the signal strength, not for a disabled adapter.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a wireless adapter?
How do I check the wireless adapter status?
What could cause a wireless adapter to become disabled?
A system utility available in the Windows operating system that allows to roll back system files and settings to an earlier point in time is known as:
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Windows Easy Transfer
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Task Manager
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System Restore
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Computer Management
Answer Description
System Restore is a tool that will cycle all files and applications back to the time specified, while task manager allows the administrator to monitor system usage and close applications.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is System Restore in Windows?
How does System Restore create restore points?
What should I do if System Restore fails to fix my issue?
A user reports that they are repeatedly receiving alerts on their desktop stating their Windows system is infected with a virus and prompting them to call a toll-free number for assistance. What is the MOST likely explanation for these alerts?
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These are routine Windows system notifications for regular maintenance.
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The Windows Action Center is reporting an incomplete system update process.
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The alerts are from the installed antivirus software indicating legitimate virus detection.
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The system is likely infected with scareware, which is trying to deceive the user.
Answer Description
These desktop alerts are characteristic of scareware, a type of malware that tricks users into believing their system is compromised to extort money or personal information. Such alerts frequently use alarming language and urge immediate action, often providing a phone number to call. Legitimate antivirus software does not operate in this manner.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is scareware and how does it work?
How can I identify legitimate antivirus alerts from scareware?
What steps should I take if I suspect scareware on my system?
A system administrator is tasked with optimizing the backup process for a company's server.
Which method allows for quick restorations while minimizing storage requirements by combining the benefits of full and incremental backups?
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Full backup
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Incremental backup
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Differential backup
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Synthetic backup
Answer Description
Synthetic backups are designed to merge full and incremental backups to create a new full backup without affecting the original set. This method reduces the total amount of storage space needed since it consolidates data efficiently.
Other options like full backups can be resource-intensive, requiring significant storage, and incremental backups alone can lead to longer restoration times as they require stacking from the last full backup. Therefore, synthetic backups offer a balanced advantage for quick restorations and storage efficiency.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the key benefits of synthetic backups compared to other types?
How does a synthetic backup work in relation to incremental backups?
What are the potential drawbacks of using synthetic backups?
A small office/home office (SOHO) network administrator needs to secure the wireless network to prevent unauthorized access to internal resources. What is the BEST action to take to achieve this?
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Enable WiFi Protected Access 3 (WPA3) encryption.
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Change the default service set identifier (SSID) and disable SSID broadcast.
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Disable Universal Plug and Play (UPnP) on the router.
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Limit the wireless access by filtering the MAC addresses.
Answer Description
Enabling WPA3 on the wireless network provides robust security through stronger encryption protocols and represents the most up-to-date security standard among listed options, thus effectively preventing unauthorized access while maintaining the integrity of the network's internal resources. Changing the SSID and disabling the SSID broadcast may obscure the network but do not provide encryption or truly secure the network. While disabling UPnP might reduce the surface for potential exploitation, it does not directly prevent unauthorized access to the network.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is WPA3 encryption and how does it enhance security?
What are the risks of leaving the default SSID and broadcasting it?
Why is MAC address filtering not sufficient for securing a wireless network?
What are the potential risks associated with enabling developer mode on a mobile device?
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It allows access to advanced settings that can compromise security
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It enhances the encryption level of the device
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It improves the device's battery efficiency
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It restricts user access to application installation
Answer Description
Enabling developer mode on a mobile device can expose the device to security risks because it allows the user to access advanced development-related settings that can alter the device's functionality. These settings, if misconfigured, can make the device vulnerable to malicious attacks or unintentionally introduce security weaknesses.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are some specific advanced settings accessible in developer mode?
How can enabling developer mode compromise a device's security?
Are there any best practices for using developer mode safely?
The command tracert can only be used in Windows operating systems.
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False
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True
Answer Description
This statement is False.
This is because tracert is the command used in Windows operating systems, while traceroute serves the same function in UNIX and Linux systems. Understanding both commands is important for troubleshooting network paths and identifying connectivity issues, as they provide similar outputs that map the route packets take from the source to the destination, helping to pinpoint where delays or failures may occur.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does the tracert command do in Windows?
What is the difference between tracert and traceroute?
How can tracert/traceroute help with network troubleshooting?
What is a common cause of sluggish response time in computers?
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Loose cables
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A lack of available RAM
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Incorrect user settings
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Overheating
Answer Description
A lack of available RAM is often responsible for causing sluggish response times as the system struggles to manage multiple applications simultaneously without adequate memory. This issue forces the computer to use disk-based virtual memory, which is slower than RAM, thus slowing down the entire system. The other options do not directly cause sluggish response times. Overheating can lead to system throttling or shutdowns but not directly to sluggish performance. Loose cables might cause connectivity issues or hardware malfunctions but would not typically slow down the system. Incorrect user settings can lead to poor configuration but usually do not influence the overall performance speed directly.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
How does RAM affect a computer's performance?
What is virtual memory and how does it work?
What are some signs that I need more RAM?
Crucial Technologies is adding a new web server to the network. You have been tasked to configure the network setting for this new device. The network does have a DHCP server but you need to configure the server so that is keeps the same IP. What type of IP address should you configure to ensure that there are no issues with other devices being able to locate the server?
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Dynamic
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IPv6
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Static
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Private
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IPv4
Answer Description
The answer is Static. A static Ip address is an ip address assignment that is persistent and does not change and is not attached to a lease. Dynamic IP addresses are issued using DHCP and will change when the lease expires. The others are types of static or dynamic IP addresses.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a static IP address and how is it different from a dynamic IP address?
What is DHCP and how does it work?
Can I use both static and dynamic IP addresses in the same network?
Enabling screensaver locks on a workstation provides additional security by requiring authentication once the screensaver becomes active and the user wishes to resume work.
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False
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True
Answer Description
Screensaver locks enhance security by preventing unauthorized access when a user is away from their workstation. After the screensaver activates, the workstation locks, and the user must authenticate to unlock it, effectively securing the system from unauthorized use.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the steps to enable a screensaver lock on my workstation?
How does a screensaver lock improve security?
What technologies are typically used for authentication when unlocking a screensaver?
A user reports that a specific application on their smartphone fails to update despite having an active internet connection. What is the BEST step to take first to address this issue?
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Check if there is sufficient storage space available on the device
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Clear the application cache
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Check for compatibility of the app with the current OS version
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Uninstall and reinstall the application
Answer Description
Checking for sufficient storage space is the most logical first step in this situation because insufficient storage can prevent applications from updating, despite the presence of an active internet connection. Clearing the app cache, checking app compatibility, or reinstalling the app might address other issues but aren't typically the first steps if the primary issue is just an update failure.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why would insufficient storage space prevent an app from updating?
What are some ways to check available storage space on my smartphone?
What other issues could cause an app to fail to update, and when should I investigate those?
A user encounters a website with a valid security certificate, but their web browser displays a warning that the website is not trusted. What is the most likely explanation for this scenario?
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The website is using a compromised certificate that has been revoked by the Certificate Authority.
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The website is using a self-signed certificate, which is not recognized by the user's browser.
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The website's security certificate is expired or invalid.
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The user's web browser is outdated and does not support the website's security protocols.
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The Certificate Authority that issued the website's certificate is not trusted by the user's browser.
Answer Description
A website can have a valid certificate, meaning it has been issued by a Certificate Authority, and still not be trusted by the user's browser. This happens when the Certificate Authority issuing the certificate is not recognized or trusted by the browser. This could happen because the Certificate Authority is not well-known or has been compromised in the past. The browser could also be configured to only trust certificates from specific Certificate Authorities.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a Certificate Authority (CA)?
What does it mean for a certificate to be revoked?
How can a user check if a website's certificate is valid?
Which practice is fundamental to ensuring controlled and predictable changes within an IT environment?
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Phasing in changes gradually without consulting the change board.
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Utilizing a change request form that includes the purpose and scope of the proposed change along with required approvals from relevant stakeholders.
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Providing users with advance notice of changes without evaluating risks or impacts.
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Implementing changes without requiring documentation or formal approval processes.
Answer Description
Utilizing a change request form that includes the purpose and scope of the proposed change along with required approvals from relevant stakeholders - This is correct. A formal change request process is fundamental to change management, ensuring changes are evaluated, approved and implemented in a controlled and predictable manner. It minimizes risks by documenting the change's purpose, scope, and impact and ensures accountability by involving relevant stakeholders.
Implementing changes without requiring documentation or formal approval processes - Making changes without proper documentation or approvals increases the risk of unexpected issues, miscommunication, and potential disruptions to the IT environment.
Phasing in changes gradually without consulting the change board - While gradual implementation can reduce risks, bypassing the change board undermines the formal review and approval process, which is essential for controlled changes.
Providing users with advance notice of changes without evaluating risks or impacts - Informing users is important, but not evaluating risks or impacts before implementing changes can lead to unforeseen complications and disruptions.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a change request form and why is it important?
Who are the relevant stakeholders involved in the change approval process?
What are the risks of not following a formal change management process?
Which of the following IS an edition of Windows 10?
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Windows 10 with Bing
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Windows 10 Education
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Windows 10 Ultimate
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Windows 10 Starter
Answer Description
Windows 10 comes in several different editions: Home, Pro, Pro for Workstations, S, Education, Pro Education, Enterprise, Enterprise LTSC, X, IoT and Team. The remaining options (with Bing, Starter and Ultimate) have been used in past Windows editions but are not available with Windows 10.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the main features of Windows 10 Education?
Why were Windows 10 Starter, with Bing, and Ultimate not included as editions of Windows 10?
How do the different editions of Windows 10 cater to various user needs?
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