CompTIA A+ Practice Test (220-1101)
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CompTIA A+ 220-1101 (V14) Information
CompTIA A+ Certification Overview
Exam Versions
The current versions of the CompTIA A+ certification exams are:
- 220-1101 (Core 1)
- 220-1102 (Core 2)
These versions were launched in April 2022 and are expected to retire approximately three years from their release date.
The A+ Certification Test
To earn the CompTIA A+ certification, candidates must pass two separate exams: 220-1101 and 220-1102. Each exam has a separate fee and can be taken in any order. Both exams must be completed before the retirement date and must be from the same set of objectives. The certification is valid for three years from the date of passing the exams.
Exam Details:
- Format: Computer-based tests
- Number of Questions: 90 questions per exam
- Time Limit: 90 minutes per exam
- Result Availability: Immediately after completion, following a short mandatory survey
CompTIA A+ 220-1101
The CompTIA A+ 220-1101 (Core 1) exam is a key component of the A+ certification, designed to validate essential IT skills and knowledge. This exam, launched in April 2022, covers a broad range of topics critical for IT professionals, including mobile devices, networking technology, hardware, virtualization and cloud computing, and network troubleshooting. Comprising 90 questions, the test includes multiple-choice and performance-based questions, simulating real-world scenarios to assess the candidate's practical abilities. The 220-1101 exam emphasizes the foundational skills necessary for IT support roles, ensuring that certified individuals are equipped to handle a variety of technical issues. With a 90-minute time limit, the exam challenges candidates to demonstrate their proficiency efficiently, providing immediate results upon completion. The certification remains valid for three years, making it a crucial step for those aiming to establish or advance their careers in IT.
Exam Policies and Procedures
Candidates must agree to CompTIA's exam policies before starting the test. These policies include:
- No Mobile Phones/Devices: Must be left outside the exam room
- Question Review: Candidates can revisit and change answers before submitting the exam
- Submission: Unanswered questions are marked, and a final review is available before submission
Testing Centers
Since July 9, 2012, CompTIA exams are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers. Candidates can book exams online, by phone, or at the testing center. Options include:
- In-Person Testing: At Pearson VUE testing centers
- Online Testing: Through Pearson VUE's online platform
Performance-Based Questions (PBQs)
The A+ exams include Performance-Based Questions (PBQs), which require candidates to perform specific tasks or solve problems in a simulated environment. These questions test real-world skills in areas like command prompts, Windows OS, and networking environments.
Continuing Education (CE) Program
Certifications with the +CE (Continuing Education) suffix, including A+, Network+, and Security+, must be renewed every three years. Renewal options include:
- Retaking the Exam: Passing the latest version of the exam
- Higher-Level Certification: Passing a higher-level CompTIA exam
- CE Program Requirements: Completing CE activities
Lifetime Certifications
Certifications earned on or before December 31, 2010, are valid for life. However, lifetime certifications are no longer available for new candidates.
More reading:

Free CompTIA A+ 220-1101 (V14) Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited
- Mobile DevicesNetworkingHardwareVirtualization and Cloud ComputingHardware and Network Troubleshooting
Which of the following is an external interface used for connecting high-speed external storage devices to a computer?
High-Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI)
External Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (eSATA)
Video Graphics Array (VGA)
Universal Serial Bus (USB)
Answer Description
External SATA, or eSATA, is an interface for connecting external mass storage devices such as hard drives. It allows the fast data transfer speeds of SATA (Serial ATA) to be utilized with external devices. USB is a universal interface supporting various types of devices including storage but isn't specifically designed for high-speed external storage like eSATA. HDMI and VGA are video interfaces used for display devices and not for storage connections.
Ask Bash
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What is eSATA used for?
How does eSATA compare to USB for external storage?
Why can HDMI and VGA not be used for storage devices?
You are installing cat5 cabling in a large corporate campus. You have measured the distance from a network closet to a new annex building to be 90 meters. According to the cat 5 specification, is the use of a signal repeater necessary?
Yes, the max length is 75 meters
No, this is below the maximum distance of 100 meters
No, this is below the maximum distance of 200 meters
Yes, the max length is 50 meters per network segment
Answer Description
Category 5 cabling is rated for a maximum of 100 meters.
Ask Bash
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What factors impact the maximum distance of Cat 5 cabling?
What is the difference between Cat 5 and Cat 5e cabling?
What happens if a Cat 5 cable exceeds its maximum length?
Which statement accurately describes how a network load balancer can distribute client requests?
It requires all backend servers to share the same IP subnet.
It alternates requests between clients instead of servers to preserve bandwidth.
It sends traffic only to servers located in the same physical rack.
It can distribute traffic to servers hosted in different geographic regions or data centers.
Answer Description
Load balancers are not limited to a single rack, subnet, or geographic location. They forward each incoming connection or packet to a healthy backend server anywhere the network can reach-even servers located in different data centers or regions-thereby improving redundancy and performance. They do not alternate traffic between clients, and they do not require all backend servers to share the same subnet or physical hardware.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
How does a network load balancer determine which backend server to route traffic to?
What does it mean for a backend server to be 'healthy' in the context of a load balancer?
How do load balancers improve redundancy and performance in a network?
A user reports that their laser printer, which has been reliable for two years, is now producing printouts where the toner is not properly adhering to the paper and can be smudged off with a finger. The printer is not displaying any error messages. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this problem?
The toner cartridge is low and needs replacement.
The incorrect paper type is being used.
The fuser assembly has become faulty and is not heating up sufficiently.
The transfer belt is misaligned or malfunctioning.
Answer Description
When a laser printer's toner does not fuse properly to the paper, the fuser assembly is the most probable cause. The fuser's function is to apply heat and pressure to melt and bond the toner to the paper. A faulty or end-of-life fuser will not reach the necessary temperature, resulting in smudgable toner on prints. While using an incorrect paper type can also lead to poor fusing, a malfunctioning fuser is a more likely cause for a printer that was previously working correctly. A low toner cartridge would cause faded prints, not a failure to fuse. A malfunctioning transfer belt typically results in defects like color alignment issues, streaks, or missing colors, rather than fusing errors.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the function of a fuser assembly in a laser printer?
How can you tell if a fuser assembly is faulty?
Why does incorrect paper type sometimes cause poor toner adhesion?
What feature should be enabled to ensure that printed documents are only released to authorized individuals at a shared printer?
User authentication
Duplex printing
Color calibration
Tray settings adjustment
Answer Description
The feature that should be enabled is 'user authentication.' This requires individuals to authenticate themselves, typically through a PIN, access card, or username and password, before they can retrieve their documents from the printer. This security measure prevents sensitive documents from being left unattended in the output tray, protecting them from unauthorized access.
Ask Bash
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How does user authentication work on a shared printer?
What are the benefits of enabling user authentication on printers?
Are there other security features that can complement user authentication on printers?
Which transport protocol and default port combination is used by Secure Shell (SSH) to create a reliable, connection-oriented channel for remote administration?
TCP port 22
UDP port 161
UDP port 22
TCP port 23
Answer Description
SSH relies on the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) because TCP establishes a three-way handshake that guarantees a reliable, ordered stream of data. The Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) designates TCP port 22 as the well-known port for SSH servers. Options using UDP are incorrect because UDP is connectionless, while the port numbers 23 and 161 correspond to Telnet and SNMP, not SSH.
Ask Bash
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Why does SSH use TCP instead of UDP?
What is the purpose of the three-way handshake in TCP?
What are the functions of TCP port 22 versus TCP port 23?
Which cloud model is best suited for an organization that seeks to deploy services for a specific group with common concerns and requirements, which may include regulatory compliance and performance objectives?
Community cloud
Private cloud
Public cloud
Hybrid cloud
Answer Description
The Community Cloud model is designed to meet the specific needs of a group of organizations or a community with shared interests and requirements, such as regulatory compliance and performance objectives. It contrasts with other cloud models that are not as specialized or exclusive to a particular group. For example, the Private Cloud is dedicated to a single organization, the Public Cloud is available to the general public, and the Hybrid Cloud is a combination of private and public cloud services.
Ask Bash
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What are some examples of groups that might use a Community Cloud?
How does a Community Cloud differ from a Private Cloud in terms of ownership?
What are the typical challenges of implementing a Community Cloud?
A technician needs to wire a patch panel to a keystone jack for a new office installation. The office's existing cabling is terminated to the T568B standard. To maintain consistency within the network, which wiring standard should the technician apply to the new drop?
Create a custom wiring scheme with different color orders to enhance signal clarity.
Use T568A on the patch panel and T568B on the keystone jack to improve cable performance.
Terminate both the patch panel and the keystone jack using the T568B wiring scheme.
Terminate both ends using the T568A wiring scheme.
Answer Description
To avoid mismatched terminations and possible crossover connections, technicians should follow the same wiring convention already used in the infrastructure. Because the existing runs are wired to T568B, the new patch-panel and keystone terminations should also use T568B. T568A would also work electrically, but mixing schemes complicates documentation and can introduce errors. A mixed A-to-B termination intentionally creates a crossover cable, which is unnecessary on modern Auto-MDI/MDIX equipment, and an unrecognized custom color scheme does not follow any approved standard.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the difference between T568A and T568B wiring standards?
What is Auto-MDI/X, and why is it relevant to T568A and T568B standards?
What are crossover connections, and why are they mostly deprecated?
Which mail-synchronization option on a mobile device is MOST effective for conserving data when you have a limited cellular data plan?
Automatically download attachments larger than 10 MB while roaming
Download full messages, including attachments, automatically
Enable push synchronization with no restrictions
Download headers only
Answer Description
Selecting the option to download headers only transfers just the sender, subject, and other minimal header data during the initial sync. The full message body and any attachments are downloaded only if the user opens the email, so far less cellular data is consumed than with full-message or auto-attachment downloads. Push or unrestricted synchronization moves entire messages (and sometimes attachments) automatically, using more data.
Ask Bash
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What does 'Download headers only' mean in email synchronization?
How does 'push synchronization' differ from manual email sync?
Why is downloading large attachments while roaming not ideal?
During employee onboarding, a specialized client-interaction platform can be reached only when the laptop is connected to the employer's internal network. Which step is MOST critical to enable the employee to use this platform?
Install a third-party customer-engagement application unrelated to the platform.
Connect the laptop to the company network using secure authentication (for example, a corporate VPN).
Disable firewall rules to allow all inbound and outbound traffic.
Configure a consumer screen-sharing tool for remote access.
Answer Description
Because the application resides on the company's private network, the employee must first establish a secure (typically VPN-based) connection and authenticate with corporate credentials. Only after the laptop is on the internal network will other tasks-such as installing client software or adjusting firewall rules-be meaningful.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a VPN and why is it important for accessing company networks?
How does secure authentication work in a corporate VPN setup?
Why shouldn't a firewall be disabled to access a corporate platform?
A user wants to connect a new Bluetooth headset to their laptop for the first time. The user enables Bluetooth in the laptop's settings. Which of the following is the MOST likely next step the user needs to perform to connect the headset?
Reboot the laptop to allow the new hardware to be recognized.
Enter the headset's MAC address into the laptop's Bluetooth configuration.
The headset will connect automatically now that it is in range.
Put the headset into pairing mode and select it from the list of discoverable devices on the laptop.
Answer Description
To connect a new Bluetooth device for the first time, enabling Bluetooth on the host device (the laptop) is only the first step. The peripheral device (the headset) must be made discoverable, which is often called 'pairing mode'. Once the headset is discoverable, the user must go to the laptop's Bluetooth settings, find the headset in the list of available devices, and initiate the pairing process. The connection is not automatic simply upon enabling Bluetooth. Entering a MAC address is not a standard procedure for pairing, and rebooting the laptop is unnecessary.
Ask Bash
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What is Bluetooth pairing mode and how does it work?
Why isn’t entering the MAC address necessary for Bluetooth pairing?
What are common reasons a Bluetooth device might not show up during pairing?
What is the third step of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?
Establish a theory of probable cause
Identify the problem
Verify full system functionality, and, if applicable, implement preventive measures
Document findings, actions and outcomes
Test the theory to determine the cause
Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution
Answer Description
The CompTIA troubleshooting methodology:
- Identify the problem
- Establish a theory of probable cause
- Test the theory to determine the cause
- Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution
- Verify full system functionality, and, if applicable, implement preventive measures
- Document findings, actions and outcomes
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is it important to test the theory before establishing a plan of action?
How do you effectively test a theory to determine the cause of a problem?
What should you do if testing the theory does not confirm the cause?
An e-commerce company is preparing for a massive holiday sale. They expect website traffic to increase by over 1000% for 48 hours and then return to normal levels. The company needs to ensure its website can handle the surge without crashing, but wants to avoid paying for high-capacity servers year-round. Which cloud computing characteristic best addresses this business requirement?
Rapid elasticity
High availability
File synchronization
Metered utilization
Answer Description
The correct answer is rapid elasticity. Rapid elasticity is the cloud characteristic that allows computing resources to be quickly provisioned and de-provisioned to meet changes in demand. In this scenario, the company needs to automatically scale up its server resources for the 48-hour sale and then scale them back down to save costs, which is the primary function of elasticity.
- Metered utilization is the 'pay-as-you-go' model where a customer is billed for the resources they consume. While related to the cost savings in this scenario, it is the result of using an elastic system; elasticity is the feature that enables the scaling itself.
- High availability ensures that a service remains operational by minimizing downtime, often through redundancy across multiple servers or data centers. While important for an e-commerce site, it does not specifically address the need to handle a massive, temporary surge in traffic.
- File synchronization is the process of keeping files consistent across multiple devices or locations (e.g., Dropbox) and is not relevant to scaling web server capacity for traffic.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does rapid elasticity mean in cloud computing?
How does rapid elasticity differ from high availability?
How does metered utilization complement rapid elasticity?
A technician needs to install a new high-performance storage device into a small form factor (SFF) workstation that will be used for graphic design and video editing work. The workstation has a high-speed M.2 slot available on the motherboard. Which storage type should the technician install to BEST meet the workstation's performance needs?
An externally connected USB 3.0 Hard Disk Drive with 5,400rpm speed
An mSATA Solid State Drive using SATA III interface
A 7,200rpm 2.5-inch Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA) Hard Drive
A Non-volatile Memory Express (NVMe) M.2 Solid State Drive (SSD)
Answer Description
An NVMe M.2 SSD would be the best choice for the high-performance storage device in this scenario. NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) drives utilize the PCIe bus for significantly faster data transfer speeds compared to SATA interfaces. The small form factor of the M.2 drive makes it ideal for the SFF workstation while providing ample speed for intensive tasks like graphic design and video editing.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What makes NVMe faster than SATA?
What is the difference between M.2 and mSATA?
Why is an NVMe M.2 SSD ideal for graphic design and video editing?
A desktop user reports that every time the PC is unplugged overnight the date reverts to January 1, 2016 and any custom BIOS settings-such as boot order and fan curves-have disappeared when the system is powered back on. No other hardware changes have been made, and the computer otherwise starts and runs normally once the date is corrected in Windows. According to best-practice troubleshooting, which action should you try first to correct the underlying issue?
Resetting the system clock in Windows
Updating the BIOS firmware to the latest revision
Pointing the PC to a different network time (NTP) server
Replacing the CMOS battery
Answer Description
Because the system is losing both date/time and custom firmware settings whenever AC power is removed, the most likely root cause is a depleted or faulty CMOS/RTC battery. Replacing that inexpensive coin-cell battery restores standby power to the non-volatile memory that stores BIOS data, preventing further resets. Simply changing the clock or updating firmware would not address the loss of power to the configuration memory.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a CMOS battery and why is it important?
What is BIOS and how does it work with the CMOS battery?
What are the symptoms of a failing CMOS battery?
A technician needs to replace a faulty RAM module in an older workstation. The motherboard supports DDR3 memory with a maximum frequency of 1600MHz. Which of the following RAM modules would be the BEST fit for this motherboard?
DDR2 1600MHz
DDR3 1333MHz
DDR3 1866MHz
DDR3 1600MHz
Answer Description
The correct answer is the 'DDR3 1600MHz' module, as it matches the maximum supported frequency by the older workstation's motherboard. Installing a module with a higher frequency like 'DDR3 1866MHz' or a lower frequency like 'DDR3 1333MHz' would either potentially create incompatibility issues or degrade performance. Using a different RAM type, such as 'DDR2', would physically not fit in the DDR3 slot due to different notches and key placements on the DIMM compared to DDR3, preventing proper installation.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why can't a DDR2 RAM module fit into a DDR3 slot?
What happens if you install RAM with a lower or higher frequency than the motherboard supports?
What is the difference between DDR3 1600MHz and DDR3 1866MHz RAM?
A user's workstation is experiencing intermittent shutdowns. After gathering information and questioning the user, you suspect an overheating issue. Upon opening the case, you confirm that excessive dust build-up is causing the CPU heat sink to fail in dissipating heat properly. What is the next best step to resolve this issue?
Replace the CPU as it is likely damaged due to overheating.
Clean the dust from the heat sink and any other internal components affected.
Update the BIOS.
Apply a new layer of thermal paste to the CPU.
Answer Description
Cleaning the dust from the heat sink and the internal components will allow for proper airflow and heat dissipation, which should resolve the overheating issue leading to intermittent shutdowns. Applying thermal paste and updating the BIOS are good practices in general, but they would not primarily address the problem at hand. Replacing the CPU might be the next step if it was damaged due to overheating, but there is no indication that this is the case here.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is a clean heat sink important for preventing overheating?
What is thermal paste and when should it be reapplied?
What signs indicate that a CPU may be damaged from overheating?
What is the maximum transmission speed of Cat 6a cabling at 100 meters?
100,000 Mbps
10 Mbps
1 Tbps
10 Gbps
Answer Description
Category 6a (Augmented) cabling supports 10,000 Megabits per second (Mbps) which is the same as 10 Gigabits per second (Gbps) at distances up to 100 meters.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the key difference between Cat 6 and Cat 6a cabling?
What factors can affect the performance of Cat 6a cables?
Why is Cat 6a preferred in modern network infrastructures?
A technician is assembling a custom workstation that requires high-speed external storage with an existing 3.5-inch hard disk drive. The technician has decided to leverage the existing eSATA interface on the workstation's motherboard. Which type of cabling option should the technician choose to connect the drive to the workstation allowing the best performance of the interface?
An eSATA cable designed for external connection of the drive
A Cat 6 network cable connected to a capable NAS system
A USB 3.0 to SATA adapter cable for versatile connectivity
A standard SATA cable usually used within the computer case
Answer Description
The technician should use an eSATA cable, which is specifically designed to connect external SATA hard drives to an eSATA port on a computer motherboard or an eSATA PCIe card. eSATA cables are made to handle the external transfer speeds of SATA devices, which in this case is necessary for utilizing the high-speed data transfer capabilities of the existing interface on the workstation's motherboard efficiently. Other interfaces like USB or Ethernet are either not meant for direct hard drive connectivity or would significantly limit the transfer speed of the eSATA interface.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is eSATA, and how does it differ from SATA?
Why is an eSATA cable better for high-speed external storage compared to USB?
Can eSATA provide power to external drives like USB does?
An organization requires a cloud service that allows them to deploy and manage their applications without the complexity of building and maintaining the infrastructure typically associated with the process. Which type of cloud service model would best meet this need?
Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
Platform as a Service (PaaS)
Private Cloud
Software as a Service (SaaS)
Answer Description
Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides a cloud platform and a set of tools that enable users to develop, run, and manage applications without the overhead of building and maintaining the underlying infrastructure. PaaS abstracts much of the system-administration effort needed to set up development environments. In contrast, Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) supplies virtualized computing resources but still leaves operating-system and middleware management to the customer, while Software as a Service (SaaS) delivers complete applications managed by the provider, making it unsuitable for custom application development.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the key advantage of Platform as a Service (PaaS) compared to Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)?
Can you give examples of common PaaS providers and their features?
How does PaaS differ from Software as a Service (SaaS) in terms of usability?
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