BCEN CEN Practice Test
Board of Certification for Emergency Nursing: Certified Emergency Nurse
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BCEN CEN Information
BCEN Certified Emergency Nurse (CEN) Exam
The Certified Emergency Nurse (CEN) certification, offered by the Board of Certification for Emergency Nursing (BCEN), is a credential for registered nurses (RNs) specializing in emergency care. It validates expertise in handling critical and urgent medical situations in emergency departments, trauma centers, and other acute care settings.
Exam Overview
The CEN exam consists of 175 multiple-choice questions, of which 150 are scored, and 25 are unscored pretest questions. Candidates have three hours to complete the test. The exam fee is $370 for non-members and $230 for Emergency Nurses Association (ENA) members. It is administered through computer-based testing at Pearson VUE centers and can also be taken via live remote proctoring.
Exam Content
The CEN exam assesses knowledge across various emergency nursing topics. These include cardiovascular, respiratory, neurological, gastrointestinal, genitourinary, obstetrical, and psychiatric emergencies. It also covers trauma, toxicological emergencies, environmental and communicable diseases, and disaster preparedness. Candidates are tested on professional issues, including ethical considerations, legal responsibilities, and evidence-based practice.
Who Should Take This Exam?
This certification is ideal for RNs working in emergency care settings who want to demonstrate their expertise and commitment to the field. While there are no formal prerequisites, BCEN recommends at least two years of emergency nursing experience before taking the exam. The CEN credential is recognized by hospitals and healthcare organizations as a mark of advanced competency in emergency nursing.
How to Prepare
Candidates should review the CEN Exam Handbook provided by BCEN and study the CEN Candidate Handbook for a detailed breakdown of topics. Many nurses use practice exams to assess their knowledge and identify weak areas. BCEN offers online review courses, and various nursing organizations provide study guides and exam prep courses. Hands-on experience in emergency settings is also crucial for success.
Summary
The BCEN Certified Emergency Nurse (CEN) exam is a widely recognized credential for emergency nurses seeking to validate their skills and knowledge. It is an important certification for RNs looking to advance their careers in emergency care and demonstrate their expertise in handling critical medical situations.

Free BCEN CEN Practice Test
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A patient presents with sharp, pleuritic chest pain that improves when sitting up and leaning forward. The patient also reports a recent history of a respiratory infection. Which additional clinical finding would MOST likely support the diagnosis of pericarditis?
ECG showing ST-segment elevation in all leads
Enlarged heart on chest x-ray
Pericardial friction rub
Fever of 101°F (38.3°C)
Answer Description
The presence of a pericardial friction rub is a hallmark sign of pericarditis and is caused by the inflamed layers of the pericardium rubbing against one another. While ECG changes, an enlarged heart on chest x-ray, and fever might also be associated with pericarditis, the pericardial friction rub is more specifically indicative of pericarditis and therefore is the best answer. ECG changes are nonspecific and can be seen in various cardiac conditions. An enlarged heart on chest x-ray would suggest other diagnoses, such as heart failure or cardiomegaly, rather than specifically indicating pericarditis. Fever could be related to the recent respiratory infection or a variety of other conditions.
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What is a pericardial friction rub?
How does an ECG help diagnose pericarditis?
Why is an enlarged heart on chest x-ray not specific to pericarditis?
An 80-year-old male with a history of diabetes and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) presents to the emergency department. He reports feeling 'unwell' for the past two hours with mild nausea and diaphoresis. He describes an intermittent 'burning' sensation in his epigastric region, which he attributes to his GERD. Which of the following findings is most specific for acute coronary syndrome in this patient?
Pain that radiates to the jaw
History of diabetes mellitus
Nausea and diaphoresis
Epigastric burning sensation
Answer Description
In patients with acute coronary syndrome (ACS), particularly older adults and those with diabetes, presentations can be atypical. While nausea, diaphoresis, and epigastric discomfort are all potential symptoms of ACS, they are non-specific. An epigastric burning sensation is easily confused with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). However, pain that radiates to the jaw or left arm is a classic and more specific indicator of cardiac ischemia. This finding should significantly raise the suspicion for ACS, even when other symptoms seem vague or attributable to other conditions.
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What is acute coronary syndrome (ACS)?
Why are patients with diabetes at risk for atypical ACS presentations?
How does jaw pain relate to ACS?
Which of the following is the most common causative organism for infective endocarditis?
Escherichia coli
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Staphylococcus aureus
Answer Description
Staphylococcus aureus is the most common causative organism for infective endocarditis. This bacterium is responsible for approximately 30-40% of all cases of infective endocarditis. It's important to note that while other bacteria can cause endocarditis, S. aureus is particularly virulent and can affect both native and prosthetic heart valves. Understanding the predominant causative organisms helps emergency nurses anticipate potential complications and guide initial management strategies.
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Why is Staphylococcus aureus the most common cause of infective endocarditis?
What is the difference between infective endocarditis caused by S. aureus and other organisms like Streptococcus species?
How are infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus typically managed in cases of infective endocarditis?
A 65-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of severe, unrelenting pain in the left lower extremity. The patient describes the pain as sharp and reports no previous history of trauma or injury to the area. Physical examination reveals a cool to touch, pallid left foot with absent pulses. Based on the clinical presentation, what is the MOST likely diagnosis?
Chronic arterial insufficiency
Acute arterial occlusion
Chronic venous insufficiency
Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
Answer Description
The patient's symptoms of severe, sudden pain in the lower extremity, absence of pulses, and a cool, pale presentation are characteristic of acute arterial occlusion, which is a manifestation of peripheral vascular disease. Acute arterial occlusion requires immediate intervention to restore blood flow and prevent tissue death. Chronic arterial insufficiency typically presents gradually with intermittent claudication, not sudden severe pain. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) presents with pain, swelling, and erythema, primarily in the calf, and would not typically cause absent arterial pulses or a pale foot. Venous insufficiency results in symptoms such as varicose veins, edema, and skin changes but not sudden severe pain and pulselessness.
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What causes acute arterial occlusion?
How is acute arterial occlusion different from chronic arterial insufficiency?
What are the key treatments for acute arterial occlusion?
Which of the following best describes heart failure?
An acute blockage of coronary arteries
A condition where the heart cannot pump blood effectively to meet the body's needs
Persistent elevation of blood pressure
A sudden cessation of heart function
Answer Description
Heart failure is a condition where the heart is unable to pump blood effectively to meet the body's needs. This can be due to the heart's inability to fill with blood (diastolic failure) or to eject blood (systolic failure). It's important to understand that heart failure is not a sudden stopping of the heart, but rather a chronic condition that can worsen over time. The other options, while related to cardiovascular issues, do not accurately define heart failure. Myocardial infarction is a sudden event causing heart muscle death, while hypertension is high blood pressure, which can lead to heart failure but is not the same condition.
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What is the difference between systolic and diastolic heart failure?
What are common symptoms of heart failure?
How is heart failure different from myocardial infarction?
During the initial assessment of an adult patient in cardiopulmonary arrest, what is the best next step after calling for help and confirming the absence of pulse and breathing?
Assess for potential airway obstruction before starting chest compressions.
Begin high-quality chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute.
Attach the automated external defibrillator (AED) and immediately deliver a shock.
Administer two rescue breaths before any chest compressions.
Answer Description
High-quality chest compressions are critical in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) for maintaining circulation to vital organs until normal heart rhythm is restored. According to current resuscitation guidelines, chest compressions should be initiated within 10 seconds of identifying cardiopulmonary arrest. Defibrillation is important if a shockable rhythm is present, but the immediate priority is to initiate CPR with chest compressions. Assessing for potential airway obstruction and delivering two rescue breaths are components of the CPR process but are secondary to starting chest compressions in the adult chain of survival.
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Why are chest compressions prioritized over rescue breaths in adult CPR?
What are the correct steps for delivering high-quality chest compressions?
When should an AED be used during adult CPR?
A 45-year-old male presents to the emergency department with sudden tearing chest pain radiating to the back. Blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg in the right arm and 100/60 mmHg in the left arm. His history includes hypertension and Marfan syndrome. Which diagnostic procedure is most likely to confirm the suspected condition?
Chest X-ray
Transthoracic Echocardiogram (TTE)
Electrocardiogram (EKG)
Computed Tomography (CT) Angiogram
Answer Description
Computed tomography (CT) angiography is the preferred initial imaging study in hemodynamically stable patients with suspected aortic dissection because it is rapid, widely available, and has sensitivity and specificity greater than 95 % for detecting an intimal flap. Transthoracic echocardiography (TTE) may miss distal dissections, and transesophageal echo, while highly accurate, is semi-invasive and less readily available. A chest X-ray can show mediastinal widening or other indirect signs but neither rules in nor rules out dissection. An electrocardiogram helps assess for concurrent ischemia or left-ventricular hypertrophy but is not diagnostic for dissection.
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What is an aortic dissection?
How does a CT angiogram detect an aortic dissection?
Why is Marfan syndrome a risk factor for aortic dissection?
Following a high-impact road traffic incident, a 50-year-old individual is brought into the emergency room exhibiting Beck's triad, including hypotension, jugular vein distension, and distant, muffled heart sounds. What should be the immediate priority for the treatment of this patient?
Provide IV analgesics for pain management
Administration of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for chest pain
Initiate cardiac rhythm monitoring on a telemetry device
Immediate pericardiocentesis
Answer Description
This patient is exhibiting classical signs of Beck's triad, which are highly suggestive of cardiac tamponade—a build-up of blood or fluid in the pericardial sac, leading to heart compression. The immediate priority is to reduce this compression since it is acutely life-threatening; this can be achieved through pericardiocentesis. While monitoring cardiac rhythms and administering analgesics are part of overall patient care, they are not the immediate life-saving interventions required for a cardiac tamponade. NSAIDs would be contraindicated in this setting as they do not address the underlying issue and may exacerbate bleeding if present.
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What causes cardiac tamponade to develop?
What is pericardiocentesis, and how is it performed?
How does Beck's triad help diagnose cardiac tamponade?
A 52-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with chest pain that started while mowing the lawn. The pain is substernal, radiates to the left arm, and is described as a pressure sensation. The patient appears diaphoretic and reports nausea. The initial 12-lead ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?
Schedule an exercise stress test
Administer a high-dose statin
Give oral beta-blockers immediately
Arrange for immediate reperfusion therapy
Answer Description
The patient's presentation is highly suggestive of an ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMi), particularly involving the right coronary artery as indicated by ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF which represent the inferior region of the heart. The most appropriate next step is to prepare for urgent reperfusion therapy, which can be achieved through percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or thrombolytic therapy. Administering aspirin and sublingual nitroglycerin are important initial treatments, but the priority is to restore blood flow to the affected myocardium. A cardiology consultation is necessary but does not take precedence over initiating reperfusion therapy.
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What is ST-segment elevation and why is it significant in a 12-lead ECG?
What are the methods of reperfusion therapy used for STEMI treatment?
Why are oral beta-blockers or exercise stress tests not appropriate in this situation?
A 58-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department with a blood pressure of 220/140 mm Hg, severe headache, and confusion. There are no signs of heart failure or neurological deficits. As an emergency nurse, what is the most appropriate initial pharmacological intervention?
Administer intravenous sodium nitroprusside
Administer oral hydrochlorothiazide
Administer oral captopril
Administer oral atenolol
Answer Description
The patient is showing signs of a hypertensive emergency with high blood pressure and symptoms of end-organ damage (severe headache and confusion). Immediate blood pressure reduction is needed to prevent further organ damage. Intravenous sodium nitroprusside is the best initial pharmacological intervention due to its rapid onset of action and ease of titration to manage severe hypertension. Atenolol and hydrochlorothiazide are not appropriate for immediate reduction of blood pressure in a hypertensive emergency. While oral captopril may be used in urgent situations without acute end-organ damage, it is not the optimal choice for immediate BP reduction in an emergency setting compared to intravenous options.
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What is a hypertensive emergency?
Why is sodium nitroprusside preferred in this situation?
What makes oral medications inappropriate for hypertensive emergencies?
A patient presents to the emergency department with difficulty breathing, a cough that produces frothy pink sputum, and an S3 gallop upon auscultation. A chest X-ray reveals pulmonary edema. Which initial treatment should the nurse anticipate administering to best manage this patient's condition?
Intravenous diuretics
Inhalation of a short-acting beta-agonist
Intravenous morphine
Sublingual nitroglycerin
Answer Description
The presentation is suggestive of acute decompensated heart failure with pulmonary edema. The administration of intravenous diuretics, such as furosemide, is a key initial treatment in managing fluid overload and reducing pulmonary congestion in this situation. Nitroglycerin may also be used to reduce preload and afterload but is not the initial medication of choice. Oxygen therapy alone will not address the fluid overload and is an adjunct treatment. Intravenous morphine is not the primary treatment for heart failure and is used cautiously, mainly for palliative care to ease dyspnea and anxiety in end-stage heart failure, not as an initial line of treatment.
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What is acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF)?
Why are intravenous diuretics the initial treatment for pulmonary edema?
What is the purpose of an S3 gallop in diagnosing heart failure?
Which of the following best describes an aortic dissection?
A narrowing of the aorta due to atherosclerotic plaque buildup
A localized dilation of the aorta that exceeds the normal diameter by 50%
A complete rupture of all layers of the aortic wall
A tear in the inner layer of the aorta, allowing blood to flow between the layers of the aortic wall
Answer Description
An aortic dissection occurs when blood enters the medial layer of the aortic wall, creating a false lumen. This is different from an aneurysm, which is a localized dilation of the blood vessel. The key feature of a dissection is the separation of the layers of the aortic wall, allowing blood to flow between them. This condition is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention. Understanding the difference between dissection and aneurysm is critical for proper diagnosis and management in the emergency setting.
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What symptoms might a patient with an aortic dissection present with?
How is an aortic dissection different from an aneurysm?
What are the treatment options for an aortic dissection?
A 55-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with severe chest pain, dyspnea, hypotension, and a rapid, thready pulse. The patient's medical history includes myocardial infarction one year ago. The ECG shows ST-segment elevation, and the chest X-ray does not indicate pneumothorax or hemothorax. Which intervention is MOST appropriate for managing this patient's condition?
Administration of vasopressors without addressing revascularization
Aggressive volume expansion with intravenous fluids
Immediate revascularization
High-concentration oxygen therapy alone
Answer Description
Immediate revascularization is the most appropriate intervention for a patient presenting with signs and symptoms consistent with cardiogenic shock due to acute myocardial infarction (AMI). This involves percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or thrombolytic therapy, aimed at restoring blood flow to the affected myocardium, thereby improving cardiac output and reducing the severity of shock. Volume expansion may exacerbate pulmonary edema in cardiogenic shock and is not indicated without evidence of hypovolemia. Oxygen therapy and vasopressors are supportive treatments but do not address the underlying cause of cardiogenic shock in the context of AMI.
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What is cardiogenic shock, and how is it related to myocardial infarction?
What is percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), and how does it help in acute myocardial infarction?
Why is aggressive volume expansion not recommended for cardiogenic shock?
A 56-year-old male presents to the emergency department with muffled heart sounds, hypotension, and jugular vein distention. The patient's blood pressure drops further during inspiration. Which of the following interventions is MOST appropriate for this patient?
Continuous cardiac monitoring without intervention
Aggressive volume resuscitation with IV fluids
Administration of high-flow oxygen
Immediate pericardiocentesis
Answer Description
The patient is displaying signs of Beck's triad (distant heart sounds, hypotension, and jugular vein distention) as well as pulsus paradoxus (drop in blood pressure during inspiration), which are classic signs of pericardial tamponade. This is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention to prevent cardiovascular collapse. The best initial intervention is to perform a pericardiocentesis, which involves using a needle to aspirate fluid from the pericardial space to relieve pressure on the heart. Volume resuscitation may temporarily help manage hypotension but does not address the underlying issue, thus it is not the best option given the provided signs. Oxygen administration and cardiac monitoring are supportive measures but are not definitive treatments for tamponade.
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What is Beck's triad, and why is it significant?
Can you explain pulsus paradoxus and why it matters in tamponade?
What is pericardiocentesis, and how is it performed?
A 48-year-old male with a history of intravenous drug use presents to the emergency department complaining of a high fever and malaise. He also reports experiencing a new onset of a heart murmur and petechiae. His vitals are BP 110/70, HR 102, RR 20, and Temp 102.2°F. Based on these presenting symptoms, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Stable angina
Infective endocarditis
Heart failure
Pericarditis
Answer Description
The patient presents with classic signs of endocarditis, including fever, malaise, new onset of a heart murmur, and petechiae. These symptoms are indicative of an infection of the inner lining of the heart, often affecting the heart valves. Intravenous drug use is a known risk factor for endocarditis due to the potential introduction of bacteria into the bloodstream. While the other conditions also relate to cardiac issues, they do not typically present with petechiae or are less likely in someone with the patient's stated history.
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What is infective endocarditis?
Why is IV drug use a risk factor for infective endocarditis?
How are petechiae related to infective endocarditis?
Upon finding an adult patient lying motionless in the emergency-department bay, which action should the nurse perform first according to the current American Heart Association Basic Life Support algorithm for healthcare providers?
Check the patient's carotid pulse
Start chest compressions immediately
Attach the cardiac monitor/defibrillator
Verify that the scene is safe for both staff and patient
Answer Description
The Adult BLS Algorithm begins with ensuring that the environment is safe for both the rescuer and the patient. Only after scene safety is confirmed should the nurse check for responsiveness, shout for help/activate the code team, and rapidly assess breathing and pulse. Starting chest compressions, checking a carotid pulse, or attaching the defibrillator are critical next steps, but they must occur only after the rescuer is certain the area poses no hazards. This sequence protects staff from injury and prevents delays that could occur if rescuers themselves become victims.
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Why is verifying scene safety the first step in the BLS algorithm?
What are examples of hazards in an emergency-department bay that could make the scene unsafe?
What comes next in the BLS algorithm after verifying scene safety?
A 45-year-old male who underwent lower-extremity orthopedic surgery 10 days ago presents to the emergency department with a swollen, painful right calf. Vital signs are: temperature 98.2 °F (36.8 °C), heart rate 84/min, blood pressure 128/78 mm Hg, respiratory rate 16/min, and SpO₂ 98 % on room air. He denies chest pain or shortness of breath. Based on this presentation, what is the most appropriate next step in management?
Elevate the extremity and apply a warm compress.
Begin therapeutic anticoagulation to prevent clot propagation.
Order duplex (compression) ultrasonography of the affected leg.
Obtain a D-dimer assay to rule out deep vein thrombosis.
Answer Description
His recent surgery and unilateral calf swelling give him a likely pretest probability of lower-extremity DVT under the Wells criteria. Guidelines from the American Society of Hematology and American College of Physicians recommend compression (duplex) ultrasonography as the first-line diagnostic study for patients with an intermediate-to-high pretest probability. A D-dimer is useful only to rule out DVT in low-risk patients, and empiric anticoagulation is generally reserved for situations where diagnostic imaging will be significantly delayed. Elevation and warm compresses provide comfort but neither confirm nor treat DVT.
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What is the Wells criteria?
What is compression (duplex) ultrasonography?
When is a D-dimer test used to rule out DVT?
Which of the following best describes a ventricular tachycardia?
A rapid, regular rhythm originating from the atria with narrow QRS complexes
An irregularly irregular rhythm with narrow QRS complexes
A rapid, regular rhythm originating from the ventricles with wide QRS complexes
A regular rhythm with a rate of 60-100 beats per minute and normal P waves
Answer Description
Ventricular tachycardia is characterized by a rapid heart rate originating from the ventricles, typically with a rate of 100-250 beats per minute. It's important to differentiate this from supraventricular tachycardias, which originate above the ventricles. The wide QRS complexes (>0.12 seconds) are a key feature of ventricular tachycardia, distinguishing it from most supraventricular rhythms. Atrial fibrillation, while also a tachyarrhythmia, typically has an irregularly irregular rhythm and narrow QRS complexes unless there's aberrant conduction. Sinus tachycardia is a regular rhythm originating from the sinoatrial node with a rate over 100 bpm but less than 150 bpm in adults, and it maintains normal P waves and narrow QRS complexes.
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Why does ventricular tachycardia have wide QRS complexes?
How can you differentiate ventricular tachycardia from supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)?
Why is it important to differentiate ventricular tachycardia from atrial fibrillation?
A patient presents to the emergency department with palpitations, light-headedness, and a rapid pulse. On the monitor, you observe a narrow-complex tachycardia with no discernible P waves and a ventricular rate of 180 bpm. The patient is hemodynamically stable. What is the most appropriate initial intervention for this rhythm?
Administer intravenous amiodarone over 10 minutes.
Perform immediate synchronized cardioversion.
Give atropine intravenously.
Administer intravenous adenosine rapidly followed by a saline flush.
Answer Description
Adenosine is often used as an initial intervention for stable patients with narrow-complex tachycardias, particularly when the rhythm is suspected to be supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). It can help to restore a normal heart rhythm by temporarily slowing down the heart. Synchronized cardioversion is typically reserved for patients who are hemodynamically unstable. Amiodarone is used for ventricular dysrhythmias or atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response in certain cases, and atropine is used in the management of bradycardia, not tachycardia.
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What is adenosine and how does it work?
When is synchronized cardioversion preferred over adenosine?
Why is atropine not appropriate for tachycardias?
Which of the following blood pressure readings is considered Stage 2 hypertension in adults, according to the American Heart Association?
180/120 mm Hg
120/80 mm Hg
150/95 mm Hg
135/85 mm Hg
Answer Description
According to the American Heart Association's guidelines, Stage 2 hypertension is defined as a systolic blood pressure of 140 mm Hg or higher, or a diastolic blood pressure of 90 mm Hg or higher. The correct answer, 150/95 mm Hg, falls within this range. It's important for emergency nurses to recognize different stages of hypertension to provide appropriate care and interventions. The other options represent different blood pressure classifications: 120/80 mm Hg is considered normal, 135/85 mm Hg falls under elevated blood pressure, and 180/120 mm Hg is classified as a hypertensive crisis, requiring immediate medical attention.
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What is the difference between Stage 1 and Stage 2 hypertension?
What is a hypertensive crisis, and how is it managed?
Why is it important for nurses to identify different stages of hypertension?
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