A homeowner takes out a mortgage on their property. Later, the homeowner sells the property to a buyer under a written agreement, in which the buyer agrees to make the remaining payments on the mortgage. However, the agreement does not explicitly state that the buyer will assume the debt. The homeowner subsequently defaults on the mortgage, and the bank forecloses, resulting in a deficiency after the foreclosure sale. The bank seeks to recover the deficiency from the parties. Who is responsible for the deficiency?
The homeowner is responsible for the deficiency because the buyer did not assume responsibility for the loan.
Neither the homeowner nor the buyer is responsible for the deficiency because the foreclosure ended the lender's claims.
The buyer is responsible for the deficiency because they agreed to make payments under the terms of the sale.
The homeowner and the buyer are both responsible for the deficiency because the property was transferred with the debt.
The homeowner is responsible for the deficiency because the buyer did not assume the mortgage in the agreement. When property is transferred 'subject to' an existing mortgage, the liability for the debt remains with the original borrower unless the buyer explicitly assumes responsibility for the loan. In this case, while the buyer agreed to make payments, this alone does not transfer liability. Incorrect choices either misinterpret the implications of foreclosure or the terms of the transfer agreement. A foreclosure sale does not automatically extinguish liabilities unless specifically stated, and a buyer agreeing to make payments without assumption does not take on legal responsibility for the debt.
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What does it mean to take property 'subject to' an existing mortgage?
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How does foreclosure affect liability for a mortgage deficiency?
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Multistate Bar Examination
Real Property
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