A 72-year-old patient presents with a new onset headache, which he describes as a constant, severe pain focused around the temples. The patient also reports jaw claudication and vision disturbances. Which of the following is the BEST initial management step for this patient?
The presentation is suggestive of temporal arteritis, which can lead to irreversible blindness if not treated promptly. The best initial management is starting high-dose corticosteroids to reduce vessel inflammation and prevent further ischemia. Aspirin may also be used, but it's adjunctive rather than initial treatment. Head CT scan and Lumbar puncture would not be the best initial steps in management for suspected temporal arteritis.
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Neurological Emergencies
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